Nursing Elites

1. For a client with suspected appendicitis, in which quadrant should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?

• A. upper right
• B. upper left
• C. lower right
• D. lower left

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic sign of appendicitis. The appendix is located in the lower right abdomen, so inflammation of the appendix typically causes tenderness in this specific area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tenderness in the upper right, upper left, and lower left quadrants, respectively, is not typical in appendicitis cases. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the lower right quadrant for tenderness when suspecting appendicitis.

2. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.

3. When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:

• A. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance.
• B. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection.
• C. Therapy should not be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity.
• D. Therapy should not be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for HIV, it is crucial to emphasize that therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance. HIV mutates rapidly, and any interruption can lead to the emergence of resistant strains, compromising treatment effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the virus in check with anti-retrovirals helps the client's immune system fight off opportunistic infections. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If toxicity occurs, the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment regimen by prescribing alternative anti-retroviral drugs.

4. The client has jaundice, elevated liver enzymes, and an elevated serum bilirubin. What color urine does the nurse expect to find?

• A. Pink-tinged
• B. Straw-colored
• C. Clear
• D. Dark amber

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is dark amber. In jaundice, the elevated bilirubin levels are excreted in the urine, giving it a dark amber color. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in jaundice, the urine typically appears dark amber due to the presence of elevated bilirubin, not pink-tinged, straw-colored, or clear.

5. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

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