Nursing Elites

1. For a client with suspected appendicitis, in which quadrant should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?

• A. upper right
• B. upper left
• C. lower right
• D. lower left

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic sign of appendicitis. The appendix is located in the lower right abdomen, so inflammation of the appendix typically causes tenderness in this specific area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tenderness in the upper right, upper left, and lower left quadrants, respectively, is not typical in appendicitis cases. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the lower right quadrant for tenderness when suspecting appendicitis.

2. The schizophrenic client tells you that they are "Jesus"? and "there to save the world"?. They are reading from the Bible and warning others of hell and damnation. The whole unit is getting upset and several are beginning to cry. What should the nurse do at this time?

• A. Set limits and send the client to their room.
• B. Explain to the client that not all people are Christians.
• C. Remove the Bible from the client and explain that they are not "Jesus"?.
• D. Ask the client to share with the group how he knows that he is "Jesus"?.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to set limits with the client and redirect them to their room. The client's behavior is disruptive and causing distress among others in the unit. Sending the client to their room allows them to cool down and prevents further agitation among other patients. Removing the client from the current environment can help de-escalate the situation. Asking the client to share how they know they are "Jesus"? (Choice D) may further agitate the situation and is not the immediate priority. Explaining to the client that not all people are Christians (Choice B) may not effectively address the disruptive behavior. Removing the Bible from the client (Choice C) without addressing the underlying issue may escalate the situation further.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and complains of swollen hands and feet. Which symptom below would cause the greatest concern?

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Hiccups
• C. Blood glucose of 150
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is muscle spasms because they can be indicative of a severe condition like preeclampsia, which is a serious complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. Nasal congestion and hiccups are common discomforts during pregnancy and do not pose a severe risk to the client or fetus. A blood glucose level of 150, while slightly elevated, may not be alarming in a pregnant individual and can be managed through dietary modifications or medication adjustments. Muscle spasms, especially in the context of pregnancy, should be taken seriously and thoroughly assessed to rule out any underlying serious conditions.

4. Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?

• A. active transport
• B. diffusion
• C. filtration
• D. osmosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Active transport is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process involved in the sodium-potassium pump. The pump utilizes energy to move ions against their concentration gradient, maintaining cellular concentrations. Diffusion (choice B) is a passive process where substances move from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. Filtration (choice C) involves the movement of solutes based on pressure gradients. Osmosis (choice D) is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

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