Nursing Elites

1. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?

• A. None; absorption of the second drug is not affected.
• B. The increased gut motility decreases the absorption of the second drug.
• C. The absorption of the second drug cannot be predicted.
• D. Less of the second drug is absorbed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.

2. The nurse is providing post-operative care to the craniotomy client. Diabetes insipidus is suspected when the client's urine output suddenly increases significantly. Which action takes highest priority?

• A. Continue to monitor urine output
• B. Check a pulse
• C. Check a blood pressure
• D. Check level of consciousness (LOC)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check a blood pressure. Diabetes insipidus can lead to dehydration and potential hypovolemic shock due to excessive urine output. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to assess the client's circulatory status and detect signs of shock early. Checking the blood pressure will provide essential information on perfusion, which is vital in this situation. Continuing to monitor urine output, checking a pulse, or assessing the level of consciousness are important but not as high a priority as evaluating the blood pressure in a potentially critical situation like suspected diabetes insipidus.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity. The nurse should assess the client for:

• A. fluid volume excess.
• B. hyperkalemia.
• C. hypercalcemia.
• D. fluid volume deficit.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated urine osmolarity indicates that the urine is concentrated, suggesting the body is trying to conserve water. This commonly occurs in conditions like dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Assessing the client for fluid volume excess, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia would not be the priority in this situation. Therefore, the correct answer is to assess the client for fluid volume deficit. Fluid volume excess is characterized by decreased urine osmolarity, while hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are related to electrolyte imbalances and would not directly cause elevated urine osmolarity.

4. Which action by a graduate nurse would require the charge nurse to intervene?

• A. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering
• B. Putting on a surgical mask, gown, and cap before entering the operating room
• C. Wearing a surgical mask into the holding area
• D. Wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering. In healthcare settings, it is crucial to adhere to infection control measures, which include wearing appropriate attire to prevent the spread of pathogens. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering violates these infection control protocols, necessitating immediate intervention by the charge nurse. Choices B and C are incorrect because putting on surgical attire before entering the operating room and wearing a surgical mask into the holding area are both standard practices that promote patient safety and infection control. Choice D is also incorrect as wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station, while not ideal, is not a violation that warrants immediate intervention compared to breaching infection control protocols near sensitive areas like the operating room.

5. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

• A. is given after the D10W is finished.
• B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
• C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
• D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

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