Nursing Elites

1. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?

• A. None; absorption of the second drug is not affected.
• B. The increased gut motility decreases the absorption of the second drug.
• C. The absorption of the second drug cannot be predicted.
• D. Less of the second drug is absorbed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.

2. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Hypotension and Angina
• B. Hypertension
• C. Lower extremity edema
• D. Peripheral sensory loss and SOB

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.

3. The nurse is caring for a client and wants to assess the neurologic function. Which of the following will give the most information?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Doll's eye reflex
• C. Babinski reflex
• D. Reaction to painful stimuli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Level of consciousness.' Assessing the client's level of consciousness provides crucial information about their neurologic function, including subtle changes in verbal ability, orientation, and responsiveness to commands. Doll's eye reflex is a specific eye movement test used in neurologic assessments but may not provide as much comprehensive information as the client's overall consciousness level. The Babinski reflex is a test used to assess specific spinal cord function rather than overall neurologic function. Reaction to painful stimuli provides information about sensory function and pain response but may not offer as much insight into the client's neurologic status as assessing their level of consciousness.

4. A nurse is working in a pediatric clinic, and a 25-year-old mother comes in with a 4-week-old baby. The mother is stressed out about the loss of sleep, and the baby exhibits signs of colic. Which of the following techniques should the nurse teach the mother?

• A. Distraction of the infant with a red object
• B. Prone positioning techniques
• C. Tapping reflex techniques
• D. Neural warmth techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neural warmth techniques involve the caregiver providing a warm, soothing touch to the baby, which can help to lower the baby's agitation level and promote relaxation. This technique is beneficial for calming colicky babies. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because distraction with a red object, prone positioning, and tapping reflex techniques are not effective methods for managing colic in infants. Red object distraction is not a proven technique for soothing colicky babies. Prone positioning is not recommended for infants due to the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Tapping reflex techniques are not recognized as effective interventions for colic.

5. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.

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