Nursing Elites

1. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?

• A. None; absorption of the second drug is not affected.
• B. The increased gut motility decreases the absorption of the second drug.
• C. The absorption of the second drug cannot be predicted.
• D. Less of the second drug is absorbed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.

2. The nurse is caring for a client and wants to assess the neurologic function. Which of the following will give the most information?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Doll's eye reflex
• C. Babinski reflex
• D. Reaction to painful stimuli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Level of consciousness.' Assessing the client's level of consciousness provides crucial information about their neurologic function, including subtle changes in verbal ability, orientation, and responsiveness to commands. Doll's eye reflex is a specific eye movement test used in neurologic assessments but may not provide as much comprehensive information as the client's overall consciousness level. The Babinski reflex is a test used to assess specific spinal cord function rather than overall neurologic function. Reaction to painful stimuli provides information about sensory function and pain response but may not offer as much insight into the client's neurologic status as assessing their level of consciousness.

3. When placing an IV line in a patient with active TB and HIV, which safety equipment should the nurse wear?

• A. Sterile gloves, mask, and goggles
• B. Surgical cap, gloves, mask, and proper shoewear
• C. Double gloves, gown, and mask
• D. Goggles, mask, gloves, and gown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a patient with active TB and HIV, the nurse should wear goggles, a mask, gloves, and a gown to protect themselves from potential exposure to infectious agents through respiratory secretions or blood. Surgical cap and proper shoewear are not specifically required for this procedure, making option B incorrect. Double gloving is not necessary in this scenario, hence option C is incorrect. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it includes all the essential protective equipment for this situation.

4. While making rounds at 3 am, the nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Remove the client from the room immediately.
• B. Leave the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher.
• C. Instruct a nurse tech to pull the fire alarm.
• D. Evacuate all clients from the unit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a fire emergency, the priority is the safety of the individual in the room where the fire is located. Removing the client from the room immediately is the first step in the RACE acronym for fire safety: Rescue/Remove, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. This action ensures the client's safety before addressing the fire itself. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher can delay the immediate removal of the client from the danger. Choice C is incorrect as pulling the fire alarm should be done after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D is incorrect as evacuating all clients from the unit should come after ensuring the safety of the individual in immediate danger.

5. A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

• A. within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary
• B. lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed
• C. indicating obesity because the BMI is 35
• D. indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. It is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. This client's BMI is 35, indicating obesity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's BMI is above 30, which falls under the obesity category. Therefore, a weight-reduction diet and increased physical activity are necessary to address the client's weight status and promote overall health.

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