Nursing Elites

1. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

2. Why is monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels important?

• A. to assess renal function
• B. to determine therapeutic range
• C. to measure trough levels
• D. to evaluate antibiotic resistance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels is essential to determine the drug's therapeutic range, ensuring optimal effectiveness while avoiding toxicity. Peak levels indicate the drug's highest concentration, while trough levels represent the lowest concentration before the next dose. Assessing renal function is typically done using creatinine, BUN, or creatinine clearance tests, not Serum Vancomycin levels. Evaluating antibiotic resistance involves sensitivity testing, not monitoring Vancomycin levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to determine the therapeutic range.

3. What spinal change occurring with pregnancy alters mobility?

• A. Scoliosis.
• B. Kyphosis.
• C. Lordosis.
• D. Ankylosing spondylitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lordosis.' During pregnancy, the enlarging uterus places increased weight on the spine, causing an exaggerated inward curvature known as lordosis. This change alters mobility by shifting the center of gravity forward, leading to a compensatory change in posture. Scoliosis (choice A) is a sideways curvature of the spine, not typically associated with pregnancy. Kyphosis (choice B) is an exaggerated outward curvature of the spine, while ankylosing spondylitis (choice D) is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting the spine, neither of which are directly related to the spinal changes seen in pregnancy.

4. A client with major head trauma is receiving bolus enteral feeding. The most important nursing order for this client is:

• A. measure intake and output.
• B. check albumin levels.
• C. monitor glucose levels.
• D. increase enteral feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with major head trauma receiving bolus enteral feeding is to measure intake and output (I&O). Enteral feedings are hyperosmotic agents that can cause fluid shifts. Monitoring I&O is crucial to assess fluid balance, ensuring that input matches output. Checking albumin levels (choice B) is important for assessing nutritional status but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Monitoring glucose levels (choice C) is also important but not as critical as measuring I&O in this context. Increasing enteral feeding (choice D) should only be done based on a healthcare provider's order after assessing the patient's condition, not as the most important nursing order at this time.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

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