Nursing Elites

1. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

2. Which of these clients should the LPN/LVN see first?

• A. a client with a newly placed NG tube who is complaining of pain around the face and a plugged nose
• B. a post-op prostatectomy client who complains of bladder spasms and blood in his foley bag
• C. a client in an arm cast who is 2 days post-op and reports feelings of numbness and tingling in her affected arm
• D. a client newly diagnosed with Hepatitis A who reports stomach pain and itchy skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling hours or days after a cast is applied may indicate compartment syndrome and should be reported to a medical provider right away. This is a potential emergency situation that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options present expected or typical symptoms related to their diagnosis, which do not require immediate intervention. Complaints related to a newly placed NG tube such as pain around the face and a plugged nose may require assessment and intervention but are not as urgent as potential compartment syndrome. Bladder spasms and blood in the foley bag post-prostatectomy are common postoperative issues that can be addressed after the client in the arm cast with potential compartment syndrome is seen. Stomach pain and itchy skin in a client with Hepatitis A are common symptoms of the condition and do not indicate an emergency situation.

3. Following an automobile accident that caused a head injury to an adult client, the nurse observes that the client sleeps for long periods of time. The nurse determines that the client has experienced injury to the:

• A. hypothalamus.
• B. thalamus.
• C. cortex.
• D. medulla.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sleep patterns among other functions. Injury to the hypothalamus can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle, leading to excessive sleepiness or changes in sleep patterns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not primarily control sleep regulation. The thalamus is involved in relaying sensory information, the cortex is responsible for higher brain functions, and the medulla controls vital functions such as heartbeat and breathing.

4. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate understanding of preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test?

• A. "I cannot eat or drink after midnight."?
• B. "I cannot eat for 12 hours before the test."?
• C. "I need to limit my fluid intake."?
• D. "I need to ingest a lipid solution."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test is that the client cannot eat for 12 hours before the test. It is important to note that the client can drink an unrestricted amount of water. Limiting fluid intake is not necessary for this test. There is no need for the client to ingest a lipid solution as part of the preparation. Therefore, the other choices are incorrect.

5. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

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