Nursing Elites

1. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

2. The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?

• A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
• B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
• C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
• D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.

3. A case manager is reviewing notations made in clients' records. Which note indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. A client who exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy.
• B. A client who has sustained a stroke and dresses herself.
• C. A client with a spinal cord injury transfers himself from a bed to a wheelchair.
• D. Normal neurological findings are noted in a client with a cerebral aneurysm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A case manager is responsible for coordinating a client's care and monitoring for unexpected outcomes. The situation that indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up is when a client exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy. This indicates a deteriorating condition that requires urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D describe expected outcomes or normal findings related to specific conditions, which do not demand immediate follow-up.

4. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-S�quard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

5. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, which typically presents with maculopapular lesions around the mouth with honey-colored drainage, worsening with scratching. It is important to advise the caregiver that the history and presentation are indicative of impetigo, an infectious skin condition caused by bacteria. Treatment usually involves antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because chickenpox typically presents with a vesicular rash following a history of high fever. Choice B is incorrect as impetigo is contagious and requires precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice D is incorrect as impetigo is contagious irrespective of open wounds or lesions in others.

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