Nursing Elites

1. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

2. Which of these clients should the LPN/LVN see first?

• A. a client with a newly placed NG tube who is complaining of pain around the face and a plugged nose
• B. a post-op prostatectomy client who complains of bladder spasms and blood in his foley bag
• C. a client in an arm cast who is 2 days post-op and reports feelings of numbness and tingling in her affected arm
• D. a client newly diagnosed with Hepatitis A who reports stomach pain and itchy skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling hours or days after a cast is applied may indicate compartment syndrome and should be reported to a medical provider right away. This is a potential emergency situation that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options present expected or typical symptoms related to their diagnosis, which do not require immediate intervention. Complaints related to a newly placed NG tube such as pain around the face and a plugged nose may require assessment and intervention but are not as urgent as potential compartment syndrome. Bladder spasms and blood in the foley bag post-prostatectomy are common postoperative issues that can be addressed after the client in the arm cast with potential compartment syndrome is seen. Stomach pain and itchy skin in a client with Hepatitis A are common symptoms of the condition and do not indicate an emergency situation.

3. What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?

• A. Remove the restraints and provide skin care every hour.
• B. Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
• C. Assess the restraint every 30 minutes
• D. Tie the restraint to the side rails.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.

4. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

• A. to measure uterine size
• B. to detect multiple pregnancies
• C. to measure renal size
• D. to detect foreign bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

5. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

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