NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?
- A. when clients are left in one position in bed for extended periods of time.
- B. when clients are underweight.
- C. when clients are overweight.
- D. only in underweight and overweight clients.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.
2. In which of the following conditions might increased cortisol levels be found?
- A. Cushing's syndrome
- B. Addison's disease
- C. Renal failure
- D. Congestive heart failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by increased cortisol levels due to the overproduction of cortisol by the adrenal glands. This excess cortisol can lead to various symptoms and complications. Addison's disease is associated with decreased cortisol levels as it results from adrenal insufficiency, making it an incorrect choice in this context. Renal failure and congestive heart failure are not typically linked to abnormal cortisol levels, further indicating that they are not the conditions where increased cortisol levels are found.
3. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
- B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
- C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
- D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.
4. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.
5. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:
- A. scalding from hot bath water or spills.
- B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces.
- C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns.
- D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.' First-degree burns primarily affect the outer layer of the skin and are commonly caused by overexposure to the sun without adequate protection, making it a significant concern for parents of small children. Choices A, B, and C describe other types of burns (scalding, contact with hot surfaces, and contact with flammable substances) that can cause more severe burns beyond the first-degree level. It is crucial for parents to be educated about sun safety measures to prevent sunburns in children.
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