Nursing Elites

1. When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?

• A. when clients are left in one position in bed for extended periods of time.
• B. when clients are underweight.
• C. when clients are overweight.
• D. only in underweight and overweight clients.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.

2. When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?

• A. current medications
• B. ambulation abilities
• C. family history
• D. hydration status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.

3. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

4. Which of the following foods present a problem for a client diagnosed with Celiac Disease?

• A. butter
• B. oats or barley cereal
• C. fresh vegetables
• D. coffee or tea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue, is a malabsorption disorder affecting the small intestine due to a problem with ingesting gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Therefore, oats or barley cereal would present a problem for a client with Celiac Disease as they contain gluten. Fresh vegetables, butter, coffee, and tea, on the other hand, do not contain gluten and should not pose any issues for individuals with this disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is oats or barley cereal. Choices A, C, and D are not problematic for clients with Celiac Disease as they are gluten-free.

5. Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?

• A. epilepsy
• B. Parkinson's
• C. multiple sclerosis
• D. Huntington's chorea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's chorea is a neurological disorder characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. Epilepsy is characterized by seizures, not writhing, twisting movements. Parkinson's disease presents with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, not writhing, twisting movements. Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system but does not typically involve writhing, twisting movements. Therefore, the correct answer is Huntington's chorea as it specifically manifests with these characteristic movements.

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