Nursing Elites

1. When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should she measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! When sizing an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to reach the pharynx without being too long or too short. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the correct anatomical landmarks for determining the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear is a standard method to ensure proper airway size and prevent complications during airway management.

2. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

• A. scalding from hot bath water or spills
• B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces
• C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns
• D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most common type of first-degree burn in small children is sunburn, often due to lack of protection and overexposure to the sun. This type of burn highlights the importance of educating parents about using sunscreens and ensuring children are adequately protected from the sun's harmful rays. Choices A, B, and C describe scenarios that can lead to burns but are not the most common type of first-degree burn in small children, making them incorrect.

3. A health care provider informs a nurse that the husband of an unconscious client with terminal cancer will not grant permission for a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The health care provider tells the nurse to perform a 'slow code' and let the client 'rest in peace' if she stops breathing. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Telling the health care provider that the client would probably want to die in peace
• B. Telling the health care provider that if the client stops breathing, the health care provider will be called before any other actions are taken
• C. Telling the health care provider that all of the nurses on the unit agree with this plan
• D. Telling the health care provider that 'slow codes' are not acceptable

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse may not violate a family's request regarding the client's treatment plan. A 'slow code' is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the health care provider. The definition of a 'slow code' varies among health care facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are inappropriate: Option A is speculative and does not address the issue directly; Option B does not challenge the unethical practice of a 'slow code'; Option C is irrelevant and does not address the ethical concerns raised by the health care provider's request.

4. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

5. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.

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