NCLEX-PN
Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions
1. Common problems for supervisors include all of the following except:
- A. the supervisor facilitates development of staff members
- B. the supervisor micromanages staff members
- C. the supervisor wants to control the style in which a staff member correctly performs a task
- D. the supervisor does not delegate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Common problems for supervisors include micromanaging staff members, wanting to control the style in which a staff member performs a task, and not delegating tasks effectively. These behaviors can hinder team building and overall effectiveness. Facilitating the development of staff members, on the other hand, is a positive attribute for a supervisor as it helps in nurturing the skills and growth of the team members. Therefore, the correct answer is 'the supervisor facilitates development of staff members' as this is not a common problem but a desirable quality in a supervisor.
2. What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?
- A. Do nothing to the client.
- B. Injure the client if the rail or bed is moved.
- C. Help the client stay in the bed without falling out.
- D. Help the client with better posture.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.
3. What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?
- A. Remove the restraints and provide skin care every hour.
- B. Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
- C. Assess the restraint every 30 minutes
- D. Tie the restraint to the side rails.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.
4. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?
- A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
- B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
- C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
- D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.
5. While working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift at the long-term care unit, the nurse gathers the nursing staff to listen to the 3 to 11 p.m. intershift report. The nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait, suspecting alcohol intoxication. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Contact the nursing supervisor.
- B. Tell the staff member that she is not allowed to administer medications.
- C. Ask the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed.
- D. Ask the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a staff member reports to work showing signs of alcohol intoxication, the nurse should objectively note the symptoms and ask a second person to confirm these observations. It is crucial to contact the nursing supervisor immediately. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are indicators of intoxication, posing a risk to client safety. The staff member should be removed from the client care area. Detailed documentation of the incident is essential, including observations, actions taken, future plans, and the staff member's signature and date on the recorded incident memo. If the staff member refuses to sign, this should be noted by the nurse and a witness. Asking the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge or restricting medication administration does not ensure client safety, as the staff member could still jeopardize it. Inquiring about the amount of alcohol consumed is confrontational and not relevant to the immediate need of ensuring safety.
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