Nursing Elites

1. Common problems for supervisors include all of the following except:

• A. the supervisor facilitates development of staff members
• B. the supervisor micromanages staff members
• C. the supervisor wants to control the style in which a staff member correctly performs a task
• D. the supervisor does not delegate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Common problems for supervisors include micromanaging staff members, wanting to control the style in which a staff member performs a task, and not delegating tasks effectively. These behaviors can hinder team building and overall effectiveness. Facilitating the development of staff members, on the other hand, is a positive attribute for a supervisor as it helps in nurturing the skills and growth of the team members. Therefore, the correct answer is 'the supervisor facilitates development of staff members' as this is not a common problem but a desirable quality in a supervisor.

2. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

3. When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?

• A. grief work facilitation
• B. vital signs monitoring
• C. medication administration: skin
• D. anxiety reduction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'grief work facilitation' because it is a nursing intervention classification specifically designed to address disturbed body image in burn clients. The expected outcome of this intervention is grief resolution, which can help the client cope with the body image changes resulting from the burn. Choice B, 'vital signs monitoring,' is not the appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in burn clients. Vital signs monitoring is typically used for assessing physiological parameters like blood pressure, pulse rate, and temperature. Choice C, 'medication administration: skin,' is more focused on treating skin-related issues rather than addressing body image disturbance. It involves the administration of medications to promote skin healing and integrity. Choice D, 'anxiety reduction,' is aimed at managing anxiety in clients with major burns and is not specifically targeted at addressing body image disturbance. While anxiety may be a common emotional response to burns, the most appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in this scenario is 'grief work facilitation.'

4. A nurse calls a health care provider to question a prescription written for a higher-than-normal dosage of morphine sulfate. The health care provider changes the prescription to a dosage within the normal range, and the nurse documents the new telephone prescription in accordance with the agency's guidelines in the client's record. Which other statement does the nurse document in the nursing notes?

• A. The health care provider made a mistake in the written prescription for morphine sulfate.
• B. An inaccurate dosage of morphine sulfate was prescribed and the health care provider was informed.
• C. The health care provider was contacted to correct a mistake in the dosage of morphine sulfate.
• D. The health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to document a factual, descriptive, and objective statement that does not include words indicating that an individual made a mistake or performed an incorrect action or procedure. If a health care provider's prescription must be questioned, the nurse should record that clarification regarding the prescription was sought. Therefore, the correct statement to document is that the health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate. Choices A, B, and C imply errors or mistakes on the part of the health care provider, which is not the focus of the documentation in this scenario.

5. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

• A. to measure uterine size
• B. to detect multiple pregnancies
• C. to measure renal size
• D. to detect foreign bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

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