NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?
- A. High-fiber
- B. Low-residue
- C. Bland
- D. Clear-liquid
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear-liquid.' After a hemorrhoidectomy, the client is usually started on a clear-liquid diet to allow the intestines to rest and promote healing. This diet helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which is crucial for recovery. Stool softeners are often included in the plan to avoid constipation. Once the client tolerates the clear liquids well, they can progress to a regular diet. High-fiber diet (choice A) is beneficial in the later stages of recovery to prevent constipation but is not typically the initial post-operative diet. Low-residue diet (choice B) and bland diet (choice C) are not appropriate for this type of surgery as they may not provide the necessary post-operative care and support needed for healing.
2. How should Lasix be administered to prevent hypotension?
- A. By administering it over 1-2 minutes
- B. By hanging it IV piggyback
- C. With normal saline only
- D. By administering it through a venous access device
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lasix should be administered over 1-2 minutes at approximately 1mL per minute to prevent hypotension. This slow administration helps to reduce the risk of adverse effects such as sudden drops in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because Lasix does not need to be hung IV piggyback, choice C is incorrect as Lasix administration does not require it to be mixed with normal saline only, and choice D is incorrect as Lasix does not have to be specifically administered through a venous access device (VAD) to prevent hypotension.
3. A hospitalized client has just been informed that he has terminal cancer. He says to the nurse, 'There must be some mistake in the diagnosis.' The nurse determines that the client is demonstrating which of the following?
- A. denial
- B. anger
- C. bargaining
- D. acceptance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is denial. In this scenario, the client's statement indicates denial, which is a common reaction in Kübler-Ross's Stages of Grieving. Denial involves the refusal to accept or believe that a loss, such as a terminal illness diagnosis, is happening. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Anger involves feelings of resentment or frustration; Bargaining is an attempt to negotiate or make deals to avoid the situation; Acceptance is the final stage where the individual comes to terms with the reality of the situation.
4. A client who recently lost 50 pounds just received news that she is pregnant. A possible nursing diagnosis is:
- A. Actual Chronic Low Self-Esteem (related to obesity).
- B. Potential Chronic Low Self-Esteem (related to obesity).
- C. Actual Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).
- D. Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's recent weight loss and subsequent pregnancy could lead to concerns about weight regain and body image. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis is 'Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).' This diagnosis reflects the client's potential emotional response to the fear of losing the progress achieved through weight loss and dealing with changes in body image due to pregnancy. Options A and C imply that low self-esteem is already present, which is not supported by the information given. Option B is not as suitable as the client's self-esteem issues are more related to the fear of weight regain and pregnancy, making option D the best choice.
5. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:
- A. A cephalohematoma
- B. Molding
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. Caput succedaneum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.
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