Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Bland
• D. Clear-liquid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear-liquid.' After a hemorrhoidectomy, the client is usually started on a clear-liquid diet to allow the intestines to rest and promote healing. This diet helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which is crucial for recovery. Stool softeners are often included in the plan to avoid constipation. Once the client tolerates the clear liquids well, they can progress to a regular diet. High-fiber diet (choice A) is beneficial in the later stages of recovery to prevent constipation but is not typically the initial post-operative diet. Low-residue diet (choice B) and bland diet (choice C) are not appropriate for this type of surgery as they may not provide the necessary post-operative care and support needed for healing.

2. Narrow therapeutic index medications:

• A. are drug formulations with limited pharmacokinetic variability.
• B. have limited value and require no monitoring of blood levels.
• C. have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood
• D. have limited potency and side effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug, indicating the safety margin. Narrow therapeutic index medications have a small difference between minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood, making them high-risk drugs that require close monitoring to avoid toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because pharmacokinetics refer to drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination, not the therapeutic index. Choice B is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs necessitate monitoring due to their narrow margin of safety. Choice D is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs do not necessarily have limited potency but are characterized by a small window between efficacy and toxicity.

3. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?

• A. A client with brain attack (stroke) receiving tube feedings
• B. A client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea
• C. A client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago
• D. A client with Parkinson’s disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea should be seen first as airway management is a priority in nursing care. This client's symptoms indicate potential respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Choices A, C, and D involve clients who are more stable and do not present with urgent or acute conditions that require immediate intervention. Choice A with a client receiving tube feedings for a stroke may require attention, but the urgency of addressing potential respiratory distress in choice B takes precedence. Choice C, a client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago, unless presenting with acute distress, does not necessitate immediate attention. Choice D, a client with Parkinson's disease, is usually a chronic condition that does not typically require immediate intervention for the described scenario.

4. When working with a client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder who frequently attempts self-harm, what is the best intervention to facilitate behavior change?

• A. Constantly observing the client to prevent self-harm.
• B. Enlisting the client in defining and describing harmful behaviors.
• C. Checking on the client every 15 minutes to ensure they are not engaging in harmful behavior.
• D. Removing all items from the environment that the client could use to harm themselves.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention when working with clients who have a history of self-harm, like the client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder, is to involve them actively in their treatment. By enlisting the client to define and describe the harmful behaviors, the client becomes an integral part of identifying triggers and understanding the underlying causes of their actions. This approach empowers the client, promotes self-awareness, and fosters a sense of control over their behaviors. Constantly observing the client (Choice A) may lead to a lack of trust and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Checking on the client every 15 minutes (Choice C) may disrupt the client's sense of autonomy and privacy. Removing all items from the environment that could be used for self-harm (Choice D) is a temporary solution and does not address the root causes of the behavior.

5. Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?

• A. Starting an IV
• B. Applying oxygen
• C. Obtaining blood gases
• D. Medicating the client for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.

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