which of the following post operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorroidectomy
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear-liquid.' After a hemorrhoidectomy, the client is usually started on a clear-liquid diet to allow the intestines to rest and promote healing. This diet helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which is crucial for recovery. Stool softeners are often included in the plan to avoid constipation. Once the client tolerates the clear liquids well, they can progress to a regular diet. High-fiber diet (choice A) is beneficial in the later stages of recovery to prevent constipation but is not typically the initial post-operative diet. Low-residue diet (choice B) and bland diet (choice C) are not appropriate for this type of surgery as they may not provide the necessary post-operative care and support needed for healing.

2. A client can receive the mumps, measles, rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold. A simple cold without fever does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine due to the live rubella component, which may lead to birth defects or disease. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine according to the American Academy of Pediatrics.

3. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.

4. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).

5. A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' Children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms, leading to bruises in that area. The presentation of a difficult-to-awaken child with bruises on the upper arms is highly concerning for non-accidental trauma, such as abusive shaking. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely because the combination of a child being difficult to awaken and bruises on both upper arms is highly suggestive of non-accidental trauma rather than benign causes like ill-fitting clothing, falling while learning to walk, or parents trying to awaken the child.

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