Nursing Elites

1. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

2. A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with:

• A. wearing clothing that is too small for the child.
• B. the child being shaken.
• C. falling while learning to walk.
• D. parents trying to awaken the child.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' In cases of suspected child abuse, bruises on both upper arms can be indicative of a child being shaken, as children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms. The presentation of a 10-month-old child being difficult to awaken, along with bruises on the upper arms, raises concern for inflicted injury. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely in this scenario as they do not align with the concerning signs of suspected abuse indicated by the bruises and the child's altered level of consciousness.

3. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

4. A client asks the nurse if all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always requires cross-matching?

• A. packed red blood cells
• B. platelets
• C. plasma
• D. granulocytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Packed red blood cells contain antigens and antibodies that must be matched between the donor and recipient to prevent transfusion reactions. Platelets, plasma, and granulocytes do not contain red blood cells, so they do not require cross-matching. Platelets are matched based on ABO compatibility, while plasma and granulocytes are not routinely cross-matched as they lack red cell antigens.

5. The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?

• A. A client 2 days post-appendectomy
• B. A client 1 week post-thyroidectomy
• C. A client 3 days post-splenectomy
• D. A client 2 days post-thoracotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a client 2 days post-thoracotomy because this client is the most critical and requires the expertise of a registered nurse. Clients A and B are stable and ready for discharge after their respective surgeries (appendectomy and thyroidectomy). Client C, who is 3 days post-splenectomy, is also stable enough to be cared for by a licensed practical nurse as they are in a stable condition and do not have immediate critical needs. Therefore, the registered nurse should care for the client 2 days post-thoracotomy due to the critical nature of the procedure and the immediate postoperative care required.

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