Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?

• A. Cyanocobalamin
• B. Protamine sulfate
• C. Streptokinase
• D. Sodium warfarin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its effects. Cyanocobalamin is a form of Vitamin B12 and is not used to reverse heparin effects. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that is used to dissolve blood clots, not to reverse heparin effects. Sodium warfarin is an anticoagulant, but it is not the antidote for heparin. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reverse the effects of heparin.

2. Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia?

• A. The nurse with 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit
• B. The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery
• C. The nurse with 10 years of experience in surgery
• D. The nurse with 1 year of experience in the neonatal intensive care unit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery (answer B) should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia. This nurse has the most relevant experience and knowledge of possible complications associated with preeclampsia due to their background in labor and delivery. Assigning a nurse with only 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit (answer A) would not be suitable for handling the complexities of caring for a client with preeclampsia. Nurses with experience in surgery (answer C) or the neonatal intensive care unit (answer D) lack the specific expertise needed for managing a postpartal client with preeclampsia, making them unsuitable choices for this assignment.

3. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Bland
• D. Clear-liquid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear-liquid.' After a hemorrhoidectomy, the client is usually started on a clear-liquid diet to allow the intestines to rest and promote healing. This diet helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which is crucial for recovery. Stool softeners are often included in the plan to avoid constipation. Once the client tolerates the clear liquids well, they can progress to a regular diet. High-fiber diet (choice A) is beneficial in the later stages of recovery to prevent constipation but is not typically the initial post-operative diet. Low-residue diet (choice B) and bland diet (choice C) are not appropriate for this type of surgery as they may not provide the necessary post-operative care and support needed for healing.

4. A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

• A. generalized anxiety disorder.
• B. schizophrenia.
• C. post-traumatic stress disorder.
• D. bipolar disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Given the history of childhood sexual abuse and the presenting symptoms of difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares, the nurse should assess the client for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Childhood sexual abuse is strongly associated with adult-onset depression and an increased risk for PTSD. Individuals with PTSD may exhibit re-experiencing symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, and heightened reactions to trauma triggers. They may also display emotional numbing, avoidance behaviors, and increased arousal symptoms like difficulty sleeping and hypervigilance. Generalized anxiety disorder (Choice A) is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety about various events or activities, not necessarily tied to a specific trauma. Schizophrenia (Choice B) is a severe mental disorder characterized by distortions in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior, unrelated to the traumatic event described. Bipolar disorder (Choice D) involves mood swings between depressive and manic episodes, and its symptoms differ from those typically seen in PTSD.

5. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis?

• A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation.
• B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old.
• C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
• D. She has frequent sore throats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diagnosis of meningitis at age 6 months correlates to a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy, a neurological disorder, is often associated with birth trauma or infections of the brain or spinal column. Answers A, C, and D are not related to the question. Gestational length (choice A) is not a direct risk factor for cerebral palsy. Physiologic jaundice (choice C) and frequent sore throats (choice D) are not typically associated with cerebral palsy.

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