Nursing Elites

1. An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication?

• A. Discard the solution and order a new bag
• B. Warm the solution
• C. Continue the infusion and document the finding
• D. Discontinue the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crystals in the solution are not normal and should not be administered to the client. Discarding the solution and ordering a new bag is the correct action to ensure the client's safety. Warming the solution, as suggested in answer B, will not resolve the issue of crystals and cloudiness, which could potentially harm the client. Continuing the infusion, as in answer C, could pose a risk to the client due to the presence of abnormal substances. Answer D, discontinuing the medication, would typically require a doctor's order and should be done after discarding the contaminated solution.

2. When teaching clients with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia nearing discharge from a residential care facility, what is an essential topic to include?

• A. pathophysiology of the disease and expected symptoms.
• B. how to recognize and manage symptoms of relapse.
• C. the need to take extra medication when feeling stressed.
• D. the importance of contact with follow-up care daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating clients with Schizophrenia nearing discharge, it is crucial to focus on teaching them how to recognize and manage symptoms of relapse. Clients are usually aware of these symptoms, such as feeling anxious and overwhelmed, before the onset of psychosis. This early stage is vital for intervention, which involves finding a safe environment, seeking help, avoiding stressors, and reducing stimuli. Understanding and managing relapse symptoms empower clients to take proactive steps in their care. Choices A and C are not as immediate and practical as recognizing symptoms of relapse for client safety and well-being. While contact with follow-up care is important, it is not as urgent and specific as knowing how to manage relapse symptoms for immediate intervention.

3. Tricyclics (Antidepressants) can sometimes have which of the following adverse effects on patients diagnosed with depression?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Fainting
• C. Large intestine ulcers
• D. Distal muscular weakness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fainting.' Tricyclic antidepressants can cause fainting and hypotension as adverse effects. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is not a common side effect of tricyclics. Large intestine ulcers (Choice C) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressants. Distal muscular weakness (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of tricyclics but is commonly associated with other medications.

4. When the nurse who was not promoted first read the memo and learned that the other nurse had received the promotion, she left the room in tears. This behavior is an example of:

• A. conversion.
• B. regression
• C. introjection.
• D. rationalization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crying is a regressive behavior. The ego returned to an earlier, comforting, and less-mature way of behaving in the face of disappointment. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development to cope with stress or conflict. In this scenario, the nurse regressed to a childlike state by crying when faced with the disappointment of not getting the promotion, demonstrating regression as a defense mechanism. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into a physical symptom. Introjection involves unconsciously identifying intensely with another person. Rationalization involves unconsciously creating acceptable explanations to justify unacceptable ideas, actions, or feelings. Therefore, the correct answer is regression as it aligns with the nurse's behavior of regressing to a childlike state by crying due to the disappointment of not receiving the promotion.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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