NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The best definition of communication is:
- A. the sending and receiving of messages.
- B. the effect of sending verbal messages.
- C. an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions.
- D. the use of message variables to send information.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Communication is defined as an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions. It involves a dynamic process of sending (encoding) and receiving (decoding) messages while being influenced by the experiences and perceptions of both the sender and receiver. This process is interactive and occurs within an environment, shaping individuals' self-concept, identity, and relationships. The correct answer captures the complexity and interactive nature of communication. Choice A, 'the sending and receiving of messages,' is too simplistic and does not encompass the interactive nature of communication. Choice B, 'the effect of sending verbal messages,' focuses solely on verbal communication and overlooks non-verbal forms. Choice D, 'the use of message variables to send information,' emphasizes technical aspects rather than the interactive and transactional nature of communication.
2. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?
- A. AST
- B. Troponin
- C. CK-MB
- D. Myoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.
3. A client with glomerulonephritis is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which of the following snacks is suitable for the client with sodium restriction?
- A. Peanut butter cookies
- B. Grilled cheese sandwich
- C. Cottage cheese and fruit
- D. Fresh peach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a fresh peach. It is the most suitable snack for a client with sodium restriction as it is naturally low in sodium. Peanut butter cookies (choice A), grilled cheese sandwich (choice B), and cottage cheese and fruit (choice C) contain higher amounts of sodium, making them unsuitable choices for someone on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits like peaches are excellent options for individuals on a low-sodium diet as they are not only low in sodium but also provide essential nutrients and hydration.
4. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:
- A. inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
- B. ask about the types of foods the child is eating.
- C. request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.
- D. question the parent about objects the child plays with.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Multiple Drug Use. The nurse should plan care based on knowledge that
- A. Multiple drug use is common.
- B. People might use more than one drug to enhance the effect or relieve withdrawal symptoms.
- C. Combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects.
- D. Assessment and intervention are more complex with multiple drug use due to the synergistic effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client with Multiple Drug Use, it is important to understand that individuals may use more than one drug simultaneously or sequentially to enhance the effect of a particular drug or to relieve withdrawal symptoms. This practice is common among substance users. For example, heroin users may also consume alcohol, marijuana, or benzodiazepines. Combining drugs can have various effects, such as intensifying intoxication or alleviating withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to recognize that multiple drug use can complicate assessment and intervention due to the diverse effects of different substances on the client's health. Option A is incorrect as multiple drug use is indeed common, not uncommon. Option C is incorrect because combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects. Option D is incorrect because multiple drug use complicates assessment and intervention rather than making them easier, as the effects of different drugs on the client need to be carefully considered.
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