Nursing Elites

1. The best definition of communication is:

• A. the sending and receiving of messages.
• B. the effect of sending verbal messages.
• C. an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions.
• D. the use of message variables to send information.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Communication is defined as an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions. It involves a dynamic process of sending (encoding) and receiving (decoding) messages while being influenced by the experiences and perceptions of both the sender and receiver. This process is interactive and occurs within an environment, shaping individuals' self-concept, identity, and relationships. The correct answer captures the complexity and interactive nature of communication. Choice A, 'the sending and receiving of messages,' is too simplistic and does not encompass the interactive nature of communication. Choice B, 'the effect of sending verbal messages,' focuses solely on verbal communication and overlooks non-verbal forms. Choice D, 'the use of message variables to send information,' emphasizes technical aspects rather than the interactive and transactional nature of communication.

2. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin (phenytoin). Which of the following statements by the patient's mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?

• A. "She is very irritable lately."?
• B. "She sleeps quite a bit of the time."?
• C. "Her gums look too big for her teeth."?
• D. "She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is '"Her gums look too big for her teeth."?' Hyperplasia of the gums is a known side effect associated with Dilantin therapy. Option A, '"She is very irritable lately,"?' is not a typical side effect of Dilantin. Option B, '"She sleeps quite a bit of the time,"?' is a common side effect of Dilantin but not specific to gum hyperplasia. Option D, '"She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months,"?' is not typically associated with Dilantin therapy and is unrelated to the question.

3. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explanation: When discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) after long-term use, it is crucial to taper the dosage gradually to prevent withdrawal symptoms. The correct statement indicates an understanding of this by planning a structured decrease in dosage over time. Choice A is incorrect as drinking alcohol while decreasing Xanax can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as abruptly stopping Xanax is not safe and can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as expecting to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medication does not address the need for a gradual tapering process to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

4. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

5. A client tells the nurse that his wife's nagging really gets on his nerves. He asks the nurse to talk with her about her nagging during their family session tomorrow afternoon. Which of the following responses is the most therapeutic for the client?

• A. "Tell me more specifically about her complaints."?
• B. "Can you think of reasons why she might nag you so much?"?
• C. "I'll help you think about how to bring this up yourself tomorrow afternoon."?
• D. "Why do you want me to initiate this in tomorrow's session rather than you?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most therapeutic response is to empower the client to address the issue himself. By offering assistance in thinking about how to bring up the topic during the family session, the nurse is promoting the client's autonomy and communication skills. This response encourages the client to take an active role in resolving the situation. Choices A and B focus on the wife's behavior, which is not the immediate concern during this interaction. Choice D challenges the client's request and shifts the responsibility back to the client, potentially hindering progress and discouraging open communication.

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