Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

2. During a well-baby examination, the nurse measures the head circumference, and it is the same as the chest circumference. On the basis of this measurement, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Document these measurements in the infant's health care record.
• B. Tell the mother that the infant is growing faster than expected.
• C. Suggest to the health care provider that a skull x-ray be performed.
• D. Report the presence of hydrocephalus to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The head circumference growth rate during the first year is approximately 0.4 inches (1 cm) per month. By 10 to 12 months of age, the infant's head and chest circumferences are equal. In this case, where the head circumference matches the chest circumference, it is a normal finding in infants around 10-12 months. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document these measurements in the infant's health care record. Suspecting hydrocephalus or suggesting a skull x-ray would be premature and not indicated based on this measurement. Similarly, telling the mother that the infant is growing faster than expected is not accurate and could cause unnecessary concern.

3. Which of the following are included in the Rights of Medication Administration? Select all that apply.

• A. Right dose, right time, right explanation, right client, right route
• B. Right dose, right time, right client, right route
• C. Right dose, right time, right client
• D. Right time, right explanation, right client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Rights of Medication Administration include the right client, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. An additional right that is sometimes included is the right documentation. The correct answer includes the essential rights that must be ensured during medication administration. Choice A is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not part of the traditional Rights of Medication Administration. Choice B is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not included, and choice C is missing the right route. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks the right dose and right route.

4. Regarding maternal and infant mortality and morbidity, a concern is that:

• A. a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care.
• B. families may not prioritize quality health care.
• C. there might be an increase in the shortage of personnel in the maternity field.
• D. maternal-child health workers may lack adequate preparation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care. This is a significant concern as lack of access to prenatal care can lead to adverse outcomes for both the mother and the infant. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes families as unconcerned, which may not be the case for all families. Choice C is also incorrect as there is no evidence or indication in the prompt to suggest an increase in the shortage of personnel. Choice D is not directly related to the concern mentioned in the prompt, which specifically focuses on the lack of prenatal care.

5. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

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