Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

2. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

3. While assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, a nurse percusses the area, and the client complains of sharp pain. The nurse interprets this finding as most indicative of which disorder?

• A. Liver enlargement
• B. Ovarian infection
• C. Spleen enlargement
• D. Kidney inflammation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, sharp pain on percussion of the area indicates inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area. The correct technique involves placing one hand over the 12th rib, at the costovertebral angle, and thumping that hand with the ulnar edge of the other fist. The client normally feels a thud and should not experience pain. Ovarian infection, liver enlargement, or spleen enlargement are not associated with the costovertebral angle tenderness. Therefore, the correct answer is kidney inflammation.

4. The nurse receives an order to administer phenytoin through the client's J-tube. The order instructs that tube feedings are stopped at least an hour prior to administering the medication and an hour after the medication is administered. Which of the following considerations may be a reason to discuss this order with the physician?

• A. The client has a history of Type II diabetes.
• B. The client is on a continuous tube-feeding regimen.
• C. The client is on fluid restriction.
• D. The pharmacy has provided phenytoin in tablet form.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client on a continuous tube-feeding regimen, stopping tube feedings for two hours to administer this medication may compromise the client's nutritional status. This interruption can lead to inadequate nutrient intake, affecting the client's overall nutritional well-being. The other choices are less relevant in this situation. Type II diabetes does not directly impact the administration of phenytoin through a J-tube. Fluid restriction would not prevent the temporary interruption of tube feedings for medication administration. The form of phenytoin provided by the pharmacy does not impact the need to discuss the order with the physician regarding the client's continuous tube-feeding regimen.

5. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

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