NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?
- A. 1+ edema
- B. 2+ edema
- C. 3+ edema
- D. 4+ edema
Correct answer: 3+ edema
Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.
2. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client’s sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. “My sister still has episodes of crying, and it’s been 3 months since Daddy died.”
- B. “Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime.”
- C. “She really had a hard time after Daddy’s funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing.”
- D. “Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy’s death. She acts like nothing has happened.”
Correct answer: “Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy’s death. She acts like nothing has happened.”
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy’s death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
3. A client is refusing to stay in the hospital because he does not agree with his healthcare treatment plan. The nurse stops the client from leaving due to concern for his health. Which of these legal charges could the nurse face?
- A. False imprisonment, as the nurse is not allowing the client to leave as he has decided to.
- B. Malpractice, as the nurse is intentionally keeping the patient from making his own decisions, thus violating that nursing duty.
- C. Invasion of privacy, as the nurse is getting involved in the patient’s private decisions regarding healthcare.
- D. Negligence, as the nurse ignored the client's right to choose regarding his healthcare.
Correct answer: False imprisonment, as the nurse is not allowing the client to leave as he has decided to.
Rationale: Refusing to let a client leave against medical advice (AMA) is a form of false imprisonment. In this scenario, the nurse is restricting the client's freedom of movement by preventing him from leaving the hospital, even though he has expressed his wish to leave. False imprisonment is a legal charge the nurse could face in this situation. The other options are incorrect: - Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to provide adequate care, not allowing a patient to make their own decisions. - Invasion of privacy involves disclosing confidential information without consent, not preventing a patient from leaving. - Negligence is the failure to take reasonable care, but it does not specifically address the act of restricting a patient from leaving against their wishes.
4. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. a client with renal impairment
- B. a client with hypertension
- C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
- D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)
Correct answer: a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.
5. The nurse is transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed. Which is the correct procedure?
- A. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the unaffected limb.
- B. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the affected limb.
- C. Push the client toward the bed, and pivot him on the affected limb.
- D. Stand the client on both legs, and push him toward the bed.
Correct answer: Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the unaffected limb.
Rationale: When transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed, the correct procedure is to pull the client toward you, which reduces workload force. By pivoting the client on the unaffected limb, strength is maintained to support the affected limb while moving towards the bed. Choice A is correct because it ensures a safe and effective transfer technique. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they involve incorrect positioning and movements that could potentially harm the client or increase the risk of injury. Pulling the client towards you puts less strain on your back and reduces the risk of injury. Pivoting on the unaffected limb ensures better support for the client's affected limb during the transfer process.
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