Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse-midwife, performing a vaginal examination of a client who suspects that she is pregnant, documents the presence of the Chadwick sign, what does this indicate?

• A. That the cervix appears violet
• B. That cervical softening is present
• C. A positive sign of pregnancy
• D. A thinning of the cervix

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the Chadwick sign is that the cervix appears violet in color. This sign is a probable sign of pregnancy, characterized by the violet coloration of the cervix due to increased vascularity of the pelvic organs. It is not a definitive positive sign of pregnancy but rather a probable one. Choices B and D are incorrect as cervical softening is known as the Goodell sign, and thinning of the cervix is referred to as the Hegar sign. These signs are also probable signs of pregnancy, but they do not specifically indicate the Chadwick sign.

2. A 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV comes to a clinic for immunizations. Which of the following vaccines should the nurse expect to administer in addition to the scheduled vaccines?

• A. pneumococcal vaccine
• B. hepatitis A vaccine
• C. Lyme disease vaccine
• D. typhoid vaccine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV, in addition to the scheduled vaccines, the nurse should expect to administer the pneumococcal vaccine. Children with HIV are at an increased risk of infections, including pneumococcal disease. The pneumococcal vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal infections like pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia. The hepatitis A vaccine is not specifically recommended for all children with HIV unless there are specific risk factors. The Lyme disease vaccine is for individuals at risk for Lyme disease, typically between the ages of 15 and 70, transmitted by ticks. The typhoid vaccine is usually recommended for individuals traveling to endemic areas or working in specific high-risk occupations like microbiology laboratories dealing with Salmonella typhi.

3. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

• A. it explains the health beliefs a family is likely to have.
• B. it emphasizes the role of culture in shaping health explanations.
• C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
• D. it is structured based on education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.

4. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client's breath sounds. To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse places the stethoscope over which area?

• A. Major bronchi
• B. The xiphoid process
• C. The trachea and larynx
• D. The peripheral lung fields

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse should place the stethoscope over the peripheral lung fields. Vesicular breath sounds are heard in these areas where air flows through the smaller bronchioles and alveoli. Bronchovesicular breath sounds, not vesicular, are heard over the major bronchi. Bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds are heard over the trachea and larynx, not vesicular sounds. Breath sounds are not heard over the xiphoid process, making it an incorrect choice.

5. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

• A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
• C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
• D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

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