Nursing Elites

1. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

2. Nail and foot care are essential in meeting the basic hygiene needs of clients. Important assessments by the nurse in this area include:

• A. a full-body assessment is not specific to nail and foot care.
• B. the essential lab work of the client is not related to nail and foot assessments.
• C. the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails.
• D. foot corns and calluses only neglect other important aspects of nail and foot care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails. This assessment is crucial to identify abnormal discoloration, lesions, paronychia, dryness, breaks in the skin, pressure areas, or any other unusual appearances. Choice A is incorrect as a full-body assessment is broader and not specific to nail and foot care. Choice B is incorrect as lab work is not directly related to nail and foot assessments. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses only on foot corns and calluses, neglecting other important aspects of nail and foot care.

3. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

4. What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?

• A. Do nothing to the client.
• B. Injure the client if the rail or bed is moved.
• C. Help the client stay in the bed without falling out.
• D. Help the client with better posture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.

5. What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?

• A. 5:01
• B. 1:05
• C. 15:02
• D. 2:15

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.

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