a hispanic client brings her father to the clinic because he is becoming more forgetful he is diagnosed with alzheimers disease the woman tells the nu
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. A Hispanic client brings her father to the clinic because he is becoming more forgetful. He is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The woman tells the nurse that she wants to try ginkgo biloba for her father before using prescription medications. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate response is to acknowledge the client's wishes and communicate them to the physician for consideration. It is important to be culturally sensitive and respect the client's preferences. Ginkgo biloba has shown some benefits in treating dementia, so it is essential to involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Choices A, B, and C are dismissive and fail to consider the client's perspective and cultural beliefs. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to engage in open communication and collaboration with clients to provide patient-centered care.

2. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

3. Which of the following clients would be most appropriate for an LPN to assign to a nursing assistant?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collecting sputum samples on stable clients is within the scope of practice for an LPN. This task does not require immediate intervention or assessment by an RN or medical provider. An RN should perform the initial assessment on any client immediately post-op as it requires a higher level of assessment and monitoring. A client suffering from an acute asthma attack should be attended to by an RN or medical provider due to the potential severity and need for prompt intervention. Assigning a medically stable client who needs help ambulating to a nursing assistant is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and allows the LPN to focus on tasks that require their expertise.

4. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.

5. A discharge planning nurse is making arrangements for a client with an epidural catheter for continuous infusion of opioids to be placed in a long-term care facility. The family prefers a facility in its neighborhood to facilitate visiting. The neighborhood facility has never cared for a client with this type of need. What is the most appropriate action by the discharge planning nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority is the safety and well-being of the client. The neighborhood facility's lack of experience in caring for a client with an epidural catheter for continuous opioid infusion raises concerns about the quality of care they can provide. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the discharge planning nurse is to explain the situation to the client and family and seek another long-term care facility that can provide the necessary care. Option A, arranging for immediate in-services, may not be feasible or timely, considering the urgent need for appropriate care. Option C, encouraging the family to hire private duty nurses, does not ensure the facility's overall capability to manage the client's complex needs. Option D, 'None of the above,' is not the best choice as the client's safety should be the priority in this situation.

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