Nursing Elites

1. An LPN is having a conflict with another nurse during her shift. She has tried to discuss the issues with the nurse with no resolution. What is the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed?

• A. Report the conflict to the director of nursing over the unit.
• B. Report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit.
• C. Report the conflict to the nurse manager of the unit.
• D. Discuss the conflict with the other nurse to attempt resolution of the issue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed is to report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit. Following the chain of command is crucial in a professional setting to address conflicts effectively. Reporting the issue to the charge nurse, who is the immediate supervisor, allows for a structured approach to resolving the conflict. Reporting directly to higher levels such as the director of nursing or nurse manager may bypass the appropriate hierarchy and could create unnecessary tension. Attempting to resolve the issue independently with the other nurse may not be effective if previous attempts have failed, making it essential to involve the immediate supervisor.

2. A Roman Catholic client is preparing to have magnetic resonance imaging. He wants to wear his metal crucifix pendant while he is receiving the test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. "Because it gives you comfort, you may wear it."?
• B. "It is a violation of religious rights to forbid it."?
• C. "I am sorry, but it is not safe for you to wear the crucifix during this test."?
• D. "You may wear it because it is important to you."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: No metal objects may be worn while receiving magnetic resonance imaging due to safety risks involved with the strong magnet. The correct response by the nurse should prioritize the safety of the client. Allowing the client to wear the metal crucifix poses a risk of injury or interference with the imaging process. Option A is not appropriate as safety takes precedence over comfort in this situation. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the safety concerns associated with wearing metal objects during an MRI. Option D is also incorrect as it fails to acknowledge the safety issue involved and instead focuses solely on the importance to the client. It is important for the nurse to offer alternative forms of spiritual support that do not pose a risk during the MRI procedure.

3. What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?

• A. The client's urine might turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses might be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin might take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.

4. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?

• A. 1
• B. 4
• C. 3
• D. 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.

5. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

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