attaching a restraint to a side rail or other movable part of the bed can attaching a restraint to a side rail or other movable part of the bed can
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?

Correct answer: Injure the client if the rail or bed is moved.

Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.

2. Which of the following NSAIDs is most commonly used for a brief period for acute pain?

Correct answer: Toradol

Rationale: Toradol is the correct answer because it is an NSAID known for its effectiveness in managing acute pain for short durations. It can be administered via intramuscular (IM), intravenous (IV), or oral (PO) routes. Advil (choice A) and Aleve (choice B) are commonly used for mild to moderate pain but may not be as effective for acute pain requiring immediate relief. Bextra (choice D) was withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an inappropriate choice for acute pain management.

3. While repositioning a comatose client, the nurse senses a tingling sensation as she lowers the bed. What action should she take?

Correct answer: Unplug the bed’s power source.

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when sensing a tingling sensation while lowering the bed with a comatose client is to unplug the bed’s power source. This should be the initial step as there may be a fault in the bed's grounding. Removing the client from the bed immediately is not safe until the electrical issue is resolved. Notifying the biomedical department is important but should come after ensuring the immediate safety of the client. Turning off the oxygen is not necessary unless there is a specific issue related to oxygen delivery, which is not indicated in this scenario.

4. A nurse assisting with data collection of the peripheral vascular system performs the Allen test. The nurse understands that this test is used to determine the patency of which blood vessel(s)?

Correct answer: Radial and ulnar arteries

Rationale: The nurse performs the Allen test to determine the patency of the radial and ulnar arteries. During the test, the nurse applies pressure over the client’s ulnar and radial arteries simultaneously. The client is then asked to open and close the hand repeatedly, causing the hand to blanch. Subsequently, the nurse releases pressure from the ulnar artery while compressing the radial artery and checks the color of the extremity distal to the pressure point. If pinkness fails to return within 6 seconds, it indicates that the ulnar artery is insufficient, suggesting that the radial artery should not be used for obtaining a blood specimen. Choice A (Capillaries) is incorrect as the Allen test assesses the patency of larger arteries, not capillaries. Choice B (Pedal pulses) is incorrect as the Allen test specifically evaluates the radial and ulnar arteries, not the pedal pulses in the foot. Choice C (Femoral arteries) is incorrect as the Allen test focuses on the radial and ulnar arteries in the hand, not the femoral arteries in the leg.

5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

Similar Questions

A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?
Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:
An infant weighs 7 pounds at birth. What is the expected weight by 1 year of age?
A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client’s weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:
In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

Access More Features

NCLEX Basic

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access @ $69.99

NCLEX Basic

  • 5,000 Questions and answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
  • 90 days access @ $69.99