Nursing Elites

1. Which is an example of a sentinel event?

• A. The terminally ill client is referred to hospice and dies 3 months later.
• B. A client receives an unordered mammogram which reveals a small cyst.
• C. A client with a laceration to the knee requiring 4 sutures falls when getting up unassisted after being instructed to remain in bed.
• D. A client scheduled for knee replacement surgery had an above-the-knee amputation performed.

Correct answer: A client scheduled for knee replacement surgery had an above-the-knee amputation performed.

Rationale: Yes! A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence causing death or serious injury. In this case, a client who was scheduled for knee replacement surgery but had an above-the-knee amputation performed instead represents a sentinel event as it resulted in serious harm that was not intended. The other choices do not meet the criteria for a sentinel event. Choice A describes a natural progression for a terminally ill client, choice B shows an incidental finding from a test, and choice C involves a preventable fall leading to an injury but not a sentinel event.

2. The client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is asking for help with the repetitive behaviors. The nurse knows that these are a method of dealing with:

• A. Fearful situations
• B. Depression
• C. Delusions
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anxiety. Repetitive behaviors in OCD serve as a way for individuals to cope with their anxiety. These behaviors are often performed to reduce the distress caused by obsessive thoughts. Choice A, fearful situations, is incorrect because the behaviors are more related to managing anxiety rather than fear itself. Choice B, depression, is incorrect as OCD behaviors are not typically a method of coping with depression. Choice C, delusions, is also incorrect as these behaviors are not aimed at managing delusional thoughts but rather anxiety in OCD.

3. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin’s disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP—nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: Alopecia

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.

4. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SAO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

• A. tuberculosis (TB)
• B. pneumonia
• C. pleural effusion
• D. hypoxia

Correct answer: hypoxia

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SAO2 indicates hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low because hypoxia stimulates hyperventilation, but the best analysis in this case is hypoxia due to the combination of low PO2 and low SAO2.

5. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: Notify the physician

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

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