Nursing Elites

1. Which is an example of a sentinel event?

• A. The terminally ill client is referred to hospice and dies 3 months later.
• B. A client receives an unordered mammogram which reveals a small cyst.
• C. A client with a laceration to the knee requiring 4 sutures falls when getting up unassisted after being instructed to remain in bed.
• D. A client scheduled for knee replacement surgery had an above-the-knee amputation performed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Yes! A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence causing death or serious injury. In this case, a client who was scheduled for knee replacement surgery but had an above-the-knee amputation performed instead represents a sentinel event as it resulted in serious harm that was not intended. The other choices do not meet the criteria for a sentinel event. Choice A describes a natural progression for a terminally ill client, choice B shows an incidental finding from a test, and choice C involves a preventable fall leading to an injury but not a sentinel event.

2. A month after receiving a blood transfusion, an immunocompromised client develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse should suspect this client has:

• A. no relation to the blood transfusion.
• B. graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
• C. myelosuppression.
• D. an allergic reaction to a recent medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of fever, liver abnormalities, rash, and diarrhea in an immunocompromised client a month after a blood transfusion are indicative of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD occurs when white blood cells in donor blood attack the tissues of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can manifest within a month of the transfusion. While choices 1 and 4 are plausible, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the possibility of GVHD in immunocompromised transfusion recipients due to the significant risk. Myelosuppression, choice C, typically presents with decreased blood cell counts and is not consistent with the symptoms described. An allergic reaction to medication, choice D, would present with different manifestations such as itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, which are not described in the scenario.

3. Because of the possible nervous system side-effects that occur with isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy, which supplementary nutritional agent would the nurse teach the client to take as a prophylaxis?

• A. Alpha tocopherol (vitamin E)
• B. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
• C. Calcitriol (vitamin D)
• D. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyridoxine is the correct choice in this scenario because it is used as a prophylaxis to prevent neuritis, a possible nervous system side-effect of isoniazid therapy. Neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the nerves and can be a side effect of isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, helps prevent this side effect. Vitamin E (Alpha tocopherol), vitamin C (Ascorbic acid), and vitamin D (Calcitriol) do not specifically address the nervous system side-effects associated with isoniazid therapy, making them incorrect choices.

4. What is the primary sign of displacement following a total hip replacement?

• A. pain on movement and weight bearing
• B. hemorrhage
• C. affected leg appearing 1-2 inches longer
• D. edema in the area of the incision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is pain on movement and weight bearing. This pain is the primary sign of prosthesis displacement after a total hip replacement, indicating pressure on nerves or muscles due to dislocation. Hemorrhage is not typically associated with prosthesis displacement. While the affected leg may appear longer, this is not the primary sign of displacement; it might actually be shorter due to muscle spasm. Edema in the incision area is not a primary indicator of prosthesis displacement.

5. The client in the Emergency Department, who has suffered an ankle sprain, should be taught to:

• A. use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours.
• B. expect disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury
• C. expect pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury.
• D. begin progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client suffers an ankle sprain, the nurse should teach them to use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours. Cold applications are believed to produce vasoconstriction and reduce the development of edema. Expecting disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury (choice B) is incorrect as disability and pain are anticipated to increase during the first 2-3 hours after injury. Expecting pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury (choice C) is also incorrect as pain and swelling usually increase initially. Beginning progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately (choice D) is not recommended; these exercises are usually started 2-5 days after the injury, according to the physician's recommendation. Treatment for a sprain involves support, rest, and alternating cold and heat applications. X-ray pictures are often necessary to rule out any fractures.

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