NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?
- A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
- B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
- C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
- D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.
2. A patient has a history of cardiac arrhythmia. A nurse has been ordered to give 2 units of blood to this patient. The nurse should take which of the following actions?
- A. Administer pain medication to the patient.
- B. Inform the patient's family about the procedure in person.
- C. Decrease the temperature of the blood to be given.
- D. Increase the temperature of the blood to be given.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with a history of cardiac arrhythmia, warming the blood before transfusion can help prevent additional arrhythmias. Cold blood can lead to arrhythmias and should be avoided. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not directly related to the safe administration of blood. Informing the patient's family in person (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action required for safe transfusion. Decreasing the temperature of the blood to be given (Choice C) would increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia, contrary to the goal of ensuring patient safety.
3. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?
- A. Avoid sit-ups to prevent worsening the condition.
- B. Surgery is not always necessary for this condition.
- C. Guarding the abdominal region is important at this time.
- D. Antibiotics are not needed for diastasis recti abdominis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.
4. A patient who has delivered an 8.2 lb. baby boy 3 days ago via c-section, reports white patches on her breast that aren't going away. Which of the following medications may be necessary?
- A. Nystatin
- B. Atropine
- C. Amoxil
- D. Lortab
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient is likely experiencing thrush, a fungal infection, which can present as white patches on the breast that persist. Nystatin is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat thrush. Therefore, the correct answer is Nystatin. Atropine is not indicated for this condition and is used for different purposes. Amoxil is an antibiotic and would not be effective against a fungal infection like thrush. Lortab is a pain medication and is not appropriate for treating thrush.
5. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:
- A. pleurisy.
- B. pleural effusion.
- C. atelectasis.
- D. tuberculosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by an abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy include sudden sharp, stabbing pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain can be exacerbated by deep breathing. In contrast, pleural effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the pleural space, not sharp pain. Atelectasis involves collapse or closure of a lung leading to reduced gas exchange, but it does not typically present with sharp, stabbing pain. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs but does not typically manifest with sudden sharp pain exacerbated by deep breathing.
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