NCLEX NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. A nurse suspects a patient is developing Bell’s Palsy. The nurse wants to test the function of cranial nerve VII. Which of the following would be the most appropriate testing procedures?
- A. Test the taste sensation over the back of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
- B. Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
- C. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the back of the tongue.
- D. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the front of the tongue.
Correct answer: Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for motor function to the face and sensory function to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Therefore, to appropriately test the function of cranial nerve VII, the most appropriate testing procedures involve assessing the taste sensation over the front of the tongue (sensory) and activation of the facial muscles (motor). Option B, 'Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the correct combination of sensory testing over the front of the tongue and motor activation of the facial muscles, which are key functions associated with cranial nerve VII.
2. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?
- A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
- B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- C. Theophylline (Theodur)
- D. Albuterol (Atrovent)
Correct answer: Albuterol (Atrovent)
Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.
3. What is the role of the incident report in risk management?
- A. Liability protection.
- B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
- C. To discipline staff for errors.
- D. All of the above.
Correct answer: To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.' Incident reports are a crucial tool for collecting information about incidents to analyze them and prevent similar issues in the future. They are not primarily used for liability protection or disciplining staff. Therefore, choices A and C are incorrect. Selecting 'All of the above' (choice D) is not accurate as incident reports serve a specific purpose related to data analysis and risk prevention, excluding liability protection and staff discipline.
4. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
- B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
- C. A history of minimal physical activity
- D. A history of the client’s food intake
Correct answer: A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.
5. How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client’s mouth?
- A. up to 10
- B. up to 15
- C. up to 20
- D. up to 32
Correct answer: up to 20
Rationale: A 5-year-old child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months, and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth are usually shed between 6 and 13 years of age. Therefore, a 5-year-old child should have up to 20 temporary teeth. The correct answer is 'up to 20.' Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct number of temporary teeth in a 5-year-old child's mouth is up to 20, not 10, 15, or 32.
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