Nursing Elites

1. A patient has recently been prescribed Lidocaine Hydrochloride. Which of the following symptoms may occur with an overdose?

• A. Memory loss and lack of appetite
• B. Confusion and fatigue
• C. Heightened reflexes
• D. Tinnitus and spasticity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Confusion and fatigue.' Lidocaine Hydrochloride, when taken in excess, can lead to symptoms such as confusion and fatigue. It affects the central nervous system, leading to these cognitive and physical impairments. Choice A ('Memory loss and lack of appetite') is incorrect because memory loss is not a common symptom of Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose, and lack of appetite is not a typical effect. Choice C ('Heightened reflexes') is incorrect as Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose usually depresses reflexes rather than heightening them. Choice D ('Tinnitus and spasticity') is incorrect as tinnitus and spasticity are not commonly associated with Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose.

2. Which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia?

• A. Client with a history of heart disease
• B. Client taking magnesium-based antacids
• C. Client with a parathyroid disorder
• D. Client admitted with alcohol abuse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the client admitted with alcohol abuse. Alcoholics tend to have poor nutrition due to decreased food intake, which is a common source of magnesium. Additionally, alcohol suppresses the release of ADH, leading to diuresis and magnesium loss. Choice A is incorrect because a history of heart disease does not directly increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. Choice B is incorrect as taking magnesium-based antacids would not put the client at risk for hypomagnesemia; in fact, it would help prevent it. Choice C is also incorrect as a parathyroid disorder is not typically associated with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.

3. The client is preparing to undergo a total hysterectomy for advanced cervical cancer. The client is crying and says that she wants to have more children and is unsure if she should have the procedure. What should the nurse do?

• A. Allow the client to honestly discuss her fears and encourage her to talk more with her physician.
• B. Tell her the good things that she will be able to do without more children and encourage her to make a list of positive things.
• C. Explain to the client that her ovaries can be frozen for egg harvesting at a later time and she can find a surrogate.
• D. Advise the client to put off having the surgery until she is sure that she wants to undergo the procedure and notify the surgeon of the decision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to allow the client to express her fears and concerns openly. By encouraging her to talk more with her physician, the nurse is promoting effective communication and ensuring that the client receives adequate information to make an informed decision. Option A is correct because it acknowledges the client's emotions and empowers her to seek clarification and support from her healthcare provider. Options B and C do not address the client's emotional needs or provide a solution to her concerns regarding fertility. Option D is not appropriate as it does not prioritize the client's emotional well-being and delays necessary medical treatment for advanced cervical cancer.

4. How can a nurse recognize that a chronic renal failure client's AV shunt is patent?

• A. Absence of a bruit
• B. Presence of a thrill
• C. Blood return from the shunt
• D. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assessment to determine the patency of an AV shunt in a chronic renal failure client is the presence of a thrill. A thrill is a vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the shunt site, indicating good blood flow through the shunt. While the presence of a bruit is also important for assessing an AV shunt, a thrill is a more specific indicator of patency. Blood return from the shunt is related to cannulation and not necessarily an indicator of patency. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr is not directly related to the assessment of an AV shunt's patency.

5. The client is undergoing an induction for fetal demise at 34 weeks. Immediately after delivery, the mother asks to see the infant. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Bring the swaddled fetus to the mother
• B. Explain that the cause of death must be determined before she can see the baby
• C. Ask her if she is sure she wants to see the baby
• D. Tell her it would be better to wait until she is in her room before she sees the baby

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should bring the swaddled fetus to the mother as the best response. Allowing the mother to see the infant immediately after delivery is crucial for her grieving process. It provides her with the opportunity to bond, say goodbye, and start the grieving process. Choice B is incorrect because delaying the mother's request to see the baby can hinder her grieving process and prolong her suffering. Choice C is inappropriate as it questions the mother's decision at a sensitive time, potentially causing distress. Choice D is also not the best response as it suggests waiting, which may not be in the mother's best interest at that moment, as she needs immediate support and closure.

Similar Questions