Nursing Elites

1. When choosing a needle gauge for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy, which of the following gauges would you choose?

• A. 27 gauge
• B. 25 gauge
• C. 22 gauge
• D. 20 gauge

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 22 gauge. A 22-gauge needle is recommended for school-age children, toddlers, and adolescents due to their muscle mass and tolerance. In infants, a smaller gauge (23-25) is preferred as their muscles are less developed and more sensitive. Choice A, 27 gauge, is too thin for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy. Choice B, 25 gauge, is more suitable for infants than for a 12-year-old. Choice D, 20 gauge, is too thick and not typically used for intramuscular injections in children.

2. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

3. A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?

• A. Peroneal nerve injury
• B. Tibial nerve injury
• C. Sciatic nerve injury
• D. Femoral nerve injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the most likely electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where the client experiences severe nausea and vomiting, the most likely electrolyte imbalance is hypokalemia. Potassium is abundant in the stomach, and excessive vomiting leads to potassium loss. Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypomagnesemia (Choice B) and Hyponatremia (Choice C) are less likely to occur compared to hypokalemia in this condition.

5. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:

• A. it is chemically stable, nonallergenic, and can be administered orally once a day.
• B. it is available in a wide range of concentrations to meet individual client requirements.
• C. it is a prodrug of T3.
• D. it has a long half-life.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the preferred medication for hypothyroidism due to its chemical stability, nonallergenic properties, and convenient once-daily oral administration. It is safe and effective with minimal side effects when appropriately dosed. Choice B is incorrect because while Levothyroxine is available in various concentrations, it is not the reason it is the drug of choice; the primary reason is its stability and nonallergenic nature. Choice C is wrong as Levothyroxine (T4) is not a prodrug of T3; it is converted to T3 in the body. Option D is inaccurate because Levothyroxine has a long half-life (around 7 days), enabling once-daily dosing, as opposed to a short half-life.

Similar Questions