Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

2. A nurse is taking the health history of an 85-year-old client. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with normal aging?

• A. Increase in subcutaneous fat.
• B. Diminished cough reflex.
• C. Long-term memory loss.
• D. Myopia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diminished cough reflex.' Diminished cough reflex is a physical finding consistent with normal aging in older adults, which can increase the risk of aspiration and atelectasis. An increase in subcutaneous fat actually raises the risk of pressure ulcers. While long-term memory is typically preserved in aging unless affected by dementia, short-term memory often declines. Myopia (near-sightedness) is common in younger individuals, but presbyopia (far-sightedness) is more common with aging. Additionally, individuals with myopia may experience an improvement in vision as they age.

3. A person who had a left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis is being instructed by a nurse to use a quad cane. Which of the following is the most appropriate gait sequence?

• A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
• B. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
• C. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
• D. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct gait sequence for a person with left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis using a quad cane is to place the cane in the patient's strong upper extremity, which is the left upper extremity in this case. The correct sequence should be right lower extremity followed by left upper extremity, as this pattern mimics a normal gait pattern. Therefore, Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the proper gait sequence for this specific patient's condition. The cane should be placed in the strong upper extremity, and the affected lower extremity should move first to provide stability and support, which is essential in this situation.

4. During a stress test, a patient complains of severe chest pain. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to relieve this discomfort?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Diazoxide
• C. Procardia
• D. Mannitol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate medication to relieve severe ischemic chest pain during a stress test is Procardia. Procardia, a calcium channel blocker, is effective in quickly alleviating chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Aspirin, although important for antiplatelet effects, is not the best choice for immediate relief of severe chest pain. Diazoxide is a vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies, not for acute chest pain. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure, not for chest pain relief.

5. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Hypotension and Angina
• B. Hypertension
• C. Lower extremity edema
• D. Peripheral sensory loss and SOB

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.

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