Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

2. A nurse gave medications to the wrong client. She stated the client responded to the name called. What is the nurse's appropriate documentation?

• A. Note in medication records the drug given
• B. The client was not hurt, no need for documentation
• C. Note the client's orientation
• D. Completely fill out an incident report

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the case where medications are given to the wrong client, the appropriate documentation by the nurse should involve completely filling out an incident report. This report is essential for tracking errors, implementing corrective measures, and ensuring patient safety. Choice A is incorrect because solely noting the drug given does not address the severity of the error. Choice B is incorrect because even if the client was not hurt, documentation is crucial for quality improvement and risk prevention. Choice C is incorrect as noting the client's orientation does not adequately address the medication error and its implications.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medical record. The record indicates the patient has limited shoulder flexion on the left. Which plane of movement is limited?

• A. Horizontal
• B. Sagittal
• C. Frontal
• D. Vertical

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sagittal.' The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane involve flexion and extension. In this case, limited shoulder flexion on the left indicates a restriction in the forward and backward movement of the arm, which occurs in the sagittal plane. Choice A, 'Horizontal,' is incorrect as it refers to movements parallel to the ground. Choice C, 'Frontal,' is incorrect as it involves side-to-side movements. Choice D, 'Vertical,' is incorrect as it typically refers to up and down movements.

4. The nurse is preparing for a dressing change on a full thickness burn to the flank area. The orders include irrigating the wound with each dressing change. To irrigate the wound, what will the nurse use?

• A. Sterile saline
• B. Distilled water
• C. Betadine scrub
• D. Tap water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When irrigating a wound, especially in the case of a full-thickness burn, it is crucial to use a solution that is gentle and non-irritating to the tissues. Sterile saline is the preferred choice for wound irrigation as it is isotonic and does not cause additional damage to the already compromised tissue. Distilled water lacks the electrolytes present in saline, Betadine scrub is not used for irrigation due to its potential to be cytotoxic, and tap water may introduce contaminants and microorganisms to the wound.

5. A female sex worker enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?

• A. herpes
• B. chlamydia
• C. gonorrhea
• D. syphilis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The question describes a female sex worker seeking treatment for the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is the most common STD in the country according to epidemiological studies. While herpes (choice A) is common, it is not the most prevalent. Gonorrhea (choice C) and syphilis (choice D) are less prevalent compared to chlamydia, making them incorrect choices.

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