NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:
- A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
- B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
- C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
- D. Notify the physician
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.
2. A mother brings her 13-month-old child with Down Syndrome to a pediatric clinic reporting muscle weakness and poor movement. The child's reflexes are noted to be diminished. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Contact the physician immediately
- B. Have the patient go for an X-ray for a c-spine work-up
- C. Start an IV on the patient
- D. Position the child's neck in a neutral position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a child with Down Syndrome presenting with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes, an atlanto-axial dislocation is a concern. The priority action is to position the child's neck in a neutral c-spine posture to prevent further injury. This should be done before any movement or manipulation. Contacting the physician should follow to ensure appropriate evaluation and management. Initiating an IV is not indicated unless specifically ordered for a medical reason. Ordering an X-ray for a c-spine work-up should not be the first action as it may involve movement that could exacerbate the condition if an injury is present.
3. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?
- A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
- B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
- C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
- D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient in the step-down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
- C. Change in LOC
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased pupil size bilaterally.' When assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure, bilateral pupil dilation is not typically associated with this condition. Instead, unilateral pupil changes, especially one pupil becoming dilated or non-reactive while the other remains normal, are indicative of increased ICP. Bradycardia, a change in level of consciousness (LOC), and vomiting are commonly seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure due to the brain's response to the rising pressure. Therefore, the presence of bilateral pupil dilation goes against the typical pattern observed in patients with increased intracranial pressure.
5. What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?
- A. metabolic alkalosis
- B. homeostasis
- C. respiratory acidosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within normal ranges, indicating a state of balance in the body's acid-base levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the ABG values provided do not point towards metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis. Instead, the values reflect a state of equilibrium where pH, PO2, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are within the normal range.
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