a 64 year old alzheimers patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors the physician orders restraints to be placed
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.

2. A patient had a pneumonectomy to the right lung performed 48 hours ago. Which of the following conditions most likely exists?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, where a lung is surgically removed, there will be a decrease in breath sound volume on the affected side due to reduced airflow. This reduction in breath sound volume is expected as there is less lung tissue to produce sound. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated tidal volume and respiratory capacity are not expected after a pneumonectomy, and wheezing is more commonly associated with conditions like asthma or bronchitis, not a recent pneumonectomy.

3. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

4. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

5. Which type of hepatitis is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatitis A is the correct answer because it is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B is transmitted through exposure to infectious blood, semen, and other body fluids, not through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis C is transmitted through blood-to-blood contact, not via the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis D occurs only in individuals infected with Hepatitis B. Therefore, the correct choice for the type of hepatitis transmitted via the fecal-oral route is Hepatitis A.

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