Nursing Elites

1. One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:

• A. the manufacture of antidiuretic hormone.
• B. the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance.
• C. the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.
• D. the control of aldosterone levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.

2. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?

• A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
• C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
• D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.

3. Ten-year-old Jackie is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever. She relates a history of 'a sore throat about a month ago.' Bed rest with bathroom privileges is prescribed. Which of the following nursing assessments should be given the highest priority when assessing Jackie's condition?

• A. her response to hospitalization
• B. the presence of a macular rash on her trunk
• C. her cardiac status
• D. the presence of polyarthritis and joint pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring Jackie's cardiac status is of the highest priority in a patient with rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can lead to permanent cardiac damage, making it crucial to closely monitor the heart. Assessing for signs of carditis, such as murmurs or other cardiac symptoms, is essential. The second priority is evaluating joint symptoms for the presence of polyarthritis and pain, which are common manifestations of rheumatic fever. While assessing Jackie's response to hospitalization is important for her emotional well-being, it is not the highest priority. The presence of a macular rash, although relevant, is not as high a priority as monitoring cardiac status or assessing joint symptoms.

4. Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

• A. Transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
• B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
• C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
• D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection. Granulocyte transfusion is not routinely indicated to prevent infection in neutropenic clients. While neutrophils are essential in fighting infections and are beneficial in selected populations of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients who do not respond to antibiotics and are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production, routine granulocyte transfusion is not recommended. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a severely neutropenic client. Prohibiting fresh flowers and plants helps reduce the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens. Avoiding rectal suppositories minimizes the risk of introducing harmful bacteria. Excluding raw vegetables from the diet reduces the likelihood of foodborne infections.

5. Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?

• A. Genital herpes.
• B. Trichomoniasis.
• C. Syphilis.
• D. Chlamydia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.

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