Nursing Elites

1. What advice should be given to a client with stress incontinence?

• A. to consider trying Kegel exercises
• B. to undergo surgery immediately
• C. to avoid all forms of treatment
• D. to ignore the issue as it is not serious

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For stress incontinence, advising the client to consider trying Kegel exercises is appropriate. Kegel exercises involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice B suggesting immediate surgery is incorrect as surgery is usually considered after conservative treatments like Kegel exercises have been tried. Choice C advising to avoid all forms of treatment is dangerous and neglectful. Choice D recommending to ignore the issue is inappropriate as it can impact the client's quality of life and may worsen over time without intervention.

2. A client had a Caesarean delivery and is postpartum day 1. She asks for pain medication when the nurse enters the room to do her shift assessment. The client states that her pain level is an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. What should be the nurse's priority of care?

• A. Give the pain medication and return in an hour for further assessment to allow time for the medication to work.
• B. Complete the postpartum assessment and then give the client pain medication.
• C. Give the pain medication first, do a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure the pain is not caused by a complication, and return for the full assessment after the client's pain has subsided.
• D. Instruct the patient to do relaxation exercises to relieve her discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain management is a priority, so the nurse should immediately provide pain medication. However, the nurse should conduct a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure that a complication, such as hemorrhage, hasn't caused the increased pain. A complete assessment can wait until the pain subsides. Controlling pain will enable the client to move, eliminating other potential complications of delivery and facilitating bonding with the infant. Relaxation techniques can act as an adjunct therapy but by themselves are not usually effective for pain management during the early post-Caesarean period.

3. A client had a C5 spinal cord contusion that resulted in quadriplegia. Two days after the injury occurred, the nurse sees his mother crying in the waiting room. The mother asks the nurse whether her son will ever play football again. Which of the following is the best initial response?

• A. "Given time and motivation, your son may regain some function, but I will seek more information from the physician."?
• B. Maintain a calm demeanor and speech pattern while addressing the mother's concerns.
• C. "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly."?
• D. "It's not beneficial for your son if you get upset."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial response in this situation is to acknowledge the mother's concern, express uncertainty, and offer to obtain more information from the physician. By saying, "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly,"? the nurse demonstrates empathy, honesty, and a commitment to providing accurate information. Offering vague reassurance (Choice A) may raise false hopes as outcomes for spinal cord injuries are unpredictable. While maintaining a calm demeanor (Choice B) is important, it does not directly address the mother's immediate need for information. Discouraging the mother from feeling upset (Choice D) is dismissive of her emotions and does not address her question, which is seeking information about her son's prognosis.

4. A central venous pressure reading of 11cm/H(2)O of an IV of normal saline is determined by the nurse caring for the patient. The patient has a diagnosis of pericarditis. Which of the following is the most applicable?

• A. The patient has a condition of hypovolemia.
• B. Not enough fluid has been given to the patient.
• C. Pericarditis may cause pressures greater than 10cm/H(2)O with testing of CVP.
• D. The patient may have a condition of arteriosclerosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A central venous pressure reading above 10cm/H(2)O may indicate a condition of pericarditis, as the inflammation and fluid accumulation around the heart can lead to elevated pressures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypovolemia would typically result in lower CVP readings, not higher. Not enough fluid given would also lead to lower CVP levels. Arteriosclerosis is not directly related to CVP readings in the context of pericarditis.

5. The PN is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse can expect the lab work to show:

• A. elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
• B. decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• C. elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• D. decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the pituitary releases too much antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the client to produce a large amount of dilute urine (decreased osmolarity) and leading to dehydration (elevated serum osmolarity). Therefore, the correct answer is decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity. Choice C, elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, is incorrect for diabetes insipidus, as it is more characteristic of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). Choices A and B, elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity, and decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, respectively, are generally not seen in diabetes insipidus, as urine and serum osmolarity typically move in opposite directions in this condition.

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