when an elder client asks the nurse whether he will be capable of sexual activity in old age the best response by the nurse is
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

2024 PN NCLEX Questions

1. When an elder client asks the nurse whether he will be capable of sexual activity in old age, the best response by the nurse is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse when an elder client asks about capability for sexual activity in old age is to provide reassurance and open communication. Choice A is the correct answer as it acknowledges that elder adults can engage in sexual activity both physically and psychologically despite age-related changes. This response encourages further discussion and addresses the client's concerns. Choices B, C, and D contain some truths but are not the most therapeutic responses. Choice B implies that past sexual activity is a prerequisite for sexual activity in old age, which is not entirely accurate as intimacy can be experienced in various ways. Choice C, while true about alternative ways to meet sexual needs, does not directly address the client's question about sexual activity. Choice D focuses on the physiological aspect of sexual function, which is important but not the most appropriate initial response to the client's query.

2. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.

3. The client is being discharged with a prescription for an inhaled glucocorticoid for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates additional education is needed prior to discharge?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.' After using an inhaled glucocorticoid, it is essential to wait for 5 minutes and then gargle water to remove any residue from the mouth, which can reduce the risk of developing thrush, a fungal infection. Choice A is correct as holding the breath for 10 seconds after each puff helps the medication reach deep into the lungs. Choice C is also correct as waiting at least one minute between puffs ensures proper delivery of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because it is important to take the medication daily as prescribed to control asthma symptoms, even if the person is not experiencing any at that moment.

4. A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.

5. A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To effectively motivate the client, it is important to educate them about the disorder at their level of understanding. This helps the client comprehend the importance of the therapeutic regimen and empowers them to actively participate in their treatment. Choice A, determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby, may provide social support but is less likely to directly impact the client's motivation compared to educating them about their condition. Developing a concise discharge plan, as in choice B, is crucial for continuity of care but may not directly enhance the client's motivation as effectively as providing education tailored to their level of understanding. Making a referral for follow-up, as in choice D, is important for ongoing care but may not have the same immediate impact on the client's motivation as educating them about their condition.

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