which of the following is true when administering a nasal spray medication
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

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1. When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.

2. When a 16-year-old girl visits the women's health clinic to obtain information about birth control because she is sexually active and wants to avoid pregnancy, what should the nurse do first when interviewing the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client seeks information about birth control, it is essential for the nurse to first assess the client's existing knowledge on the subject. This enables the nurse to provide tailored information that complements what the client already knows, facilitating better understanding and decision-making. Providing written material is a helpful educational tool but should not be the first intervention. Offering specific advice on birth control methods based on age and lifestyle limits the client's autonomy and decision-making process. Mentioning the client's boyfriend as a requirement for discussing birth control is inappropriate and nontherapeutic, as the client should be able to seek information independently.

3. When reviewing a client's medical notes to confirm pregnancy, a nurse should look for which finding to determine that pregnancy is confirmed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm pregnancy, the presence of palpable fetal movement is a positive indicator. Palpable fetal movement is a certain sign of pregnancy, known as a fetal movement felt by the examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy as it is reported by the woman but is not confirmatory. Thinning of the cervix (Hegar sign) is a probable sign of pregnancy, which is not confirmatory. A positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy is also a probable indicator. However, a positive pregnancy test result can sometimes yield false-positive results due to various factors like medication, recent pregnancy, or errors in reading.

4. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

5. A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding skin and peripheral vascular findings on a client in later adulthood. Which observation would the nurse expect to note as an age-related finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In later adulthood, age-related findings include trophic changes associated with arterial insufficiency, such as thin, shiny skin; thin, ridged toenails; and loss of hair on the lower legs. These changes occur normally with aging. Thick skin on the lower legs would not be an expected age-related finding as it typically indicates chronic venous insufficiency. A bounding dorsalis pedis pulse is not typical in later adulthood and may indicate arterial insufficiency, which is not an age-related finding.

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