Nursing Elites

1. When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?

• A. The client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered.
• B. The medication should be sprayed into the nostril.
• C. The medication should be administered as the client inhales.
• D. The client should sit upright when the medication is administered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.

2. An appraisal of self-care practices involves an assessment of:

• A. all diagnostic tests.
• B. home treatment practices, including nurse visits for the sick or disabled.
• C. the family's capability to get health insurance.
• D. caregiving needs and the potential for strain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An appraisal of self-care practices focuses on assessing caregiving needs and the potential for strain. This involves evaluating the support system in place for individuals requiring care, the level of strain experienced by caregivers, and the overall impact of caregiving responsibilities on both the caregiver and the care recipient. The other options presented do not directly relate to the assessment of self-care practices. Diagnostic tests, home treatment practices, and the family's capability to obtain health insurance are important aspects of healthcare but do not specifically pertain to the evaluation of self-care practices.

3. You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?

• A. age
• B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
• C. Mexican-American heritage
• D. 20/80 vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.

4. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 × 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?

• A. On the client's teeth
• B. On the client's forehead
• C. On the client's mastoid bone
• D. On the midline of the client's skull

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.

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