Nursing Elites

1. When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?

• A. The client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered.
• B. The medication should be sprayed into the nostril.
• C. The medication should be administered as the client inhales.
• D. The client should sit upright when the medication is administered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.

2. The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus� (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.

• A. 12
• B. 35
• C. 16
• D. 9

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds � 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units � 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.

3. A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:

• A. light or fair complexion.
• B. exposure to sun for extended periods of time.
• C. certain diet and foods.
• D. history of bad sunburns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'certain diet and foods.' Risk factors that increase the chances of getting skin cancer include having a light or fair complexion, a history of bad sunburns, personal or family history of skin cancer, outdoor activities with sun exposure, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals, repeated trauma or injury resulting in scars, age over 50, male gender, and living in specific geographic locations. These factors can contribute to the development of skin cancer. Avoiding exposure to the sun, using protective clothing and sunscreen, and regular skin inspections are key preventive measures. Choice C, 'certain diet and foods,' is incorrect as diet is not a primary risk factor for skin cancer. Options A, B, and D are all valid risk factors associated with an increased risk of developing skin cancer.

4. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

5. A preschooler has successfully completed the test item 'counts 5 blocks' on the Denver II test. This pass is evidence of which of the following developmental concepts?

• A. centration
• B. causality
• C. nonreversibility
• D. conservation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability of a preschooler to move five blocks to a piece of paper and state there are five blocks on the paper is evidence that the preschooler has the ability of conservation. This concept refers to the fact that the quantity of something doesn't change just because the shape, contour, and so on has changed. Five blocks are still five blocks, whether they are lying beside the paper, stacked on the paper, or moved to the paper. Centration is the ability to concentrate on one feature of a situation while neglecting all other aspects. Causality is based on the sequence of events, one event ordinarily following another. Non-reversibility refers to the inability of preschoolers to reverse their operations. They are only able to think forward, not retrace or reverse their thought processes.

Similar Questions