NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. What is one of the main goals of Healthy People 2010?
- A. reduction of health care costs
- B. elimination of health disparities
- C. investigation of substance abuse
- D. determination of an acceptable morbidity rate
Correct answer: elimination of health disparities
Rationale: The main goal of Healthy People 2010 is the elimination of health disparities among the U.S. population. This initiative outlines specific objectives to improve the overall health of Americans by addressing disparities in health outcomes. Choice A, reduction of health care costs, is not the primary goal of Healthy People 2010, although it may be a beneficial outcome. Choice C, investigation of substance abuse, is not a main goal of Healthy People 2010; while substance abuse may be a factor in health disparities, the primary focus is on broader disparities. Choice D, determination of an acceptable morbidity rate, is not the main focus of Healthy People 2010; instead, it aims to address health disparities in different population groups.
2. The client has an order for 0.45 mg of Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?
- A. 0.15 mL
- B. 6.6 mL
- C. 1.5 mL
- D. 0.65 mL
Correct answer: 0.15 mL
Rationale: To calculate the amount of drug to be administered, divide the ordered dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. In this case, 0.45 mg ÷ 3 mg/mL = 0.15 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.15 mL. Choice B (6.6 mL) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (1.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of dividing the ordered dose by the concentration. Choice D (0.65 mL) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
3. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct answer: 100 mL/hr
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
4. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to assess tactile (vocal) fremitus. The nurse performs this by using which technique?
- A. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion
- B. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx
- C. Auscultating the breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields
- D. Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'
Correct answer: Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'
Rationale: To assess tactile (vocal) fremitus, the nurse palpates the thorax and compares vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine.' This technique helps in evaluating the intensity and symmetry of vibrations felt. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion involves assessing the expansion of the chest during breathing by placing hands on the anterolateral wall. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx is done to assess bronchial breath sounds, while auscultating over the peripheral lung fields is used to assess vesicular breath sounds.
5. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?
- A. family history of stroke
- B. ovaries removed before age 45
- C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
- D. unexplained vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: unexplained vaginal bleeding
Rationale: When considering hormone replacement therapy for a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication. This is because it could be indicative of a serious underlying condition that needs investigation before initiating hormone therapy. A family history of stroke, by itself, is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy, unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually increase the likelihood of needing hormone replacement therapy due to early menopause. Frequent hot flashes and night sweats, on the other hand, are symptoms that can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy, making them a potential indication rather than a contraindication.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access