Nursing Elites

1. What is one of the main goals of Healthy People 2010?

• A. reduction of health care costs
• B. elimination of health disparities
• C. investigation of substance abuse
• D. determination of an acceptable morbidity rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of Healthy People 2010 is the elimination of health disparities among the U.S. population. This initiative outlines specific objectives to improve the overall health of Americans by addressing disparities in health outcomes. Choice A, reduction of health care costs, is not the primary goal of Healthy People 2010, although it may be a beneficial outcome. Choice C, investigation of substance abuse, is not a main goal of Healthy People 2010; while substance abuse may be a factor in health disparities, the primary focus is on broader disparities. Choice D, determination of an acceptable morbidity rate, is not the main focus of Healthy People 2010; instead, it aims to address health disparities in different population groups.

2. While reviewing a client's health care record, a nurse notes documentation of the presence of borborygmus on abdominal assessment. Which finding does the nurse expect to note when auscultating the client's bowel sounds?

• A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• B. Low-pitched bowel sounds
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. An absence of bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Borborygmus, a type of hyperactive bowel sound, is fairly common. It indicates hyperperistalsis, and the client may describe it as a growling stomach. Hyperactive bowel sounds are loud, high-pitched, and rushing sounds. Hypoactive bowel sounds are low-pitched and may occur post-surgery or with peritoneal inflammation. Low-pitched bowel sounds are not typically associated with borborygmus. An absence of bowel sounds indicates a potentially serious issue like an ileus, where bowel motility is decreased or absent.

3. A woman who delivered a healthy newborn 6 hours earlier complains of discomfort at the episiotomy site. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

• A. Administering an intravenous (IV) opioid analgesic
• B. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath
• C. Applying an ice pack to the perineum
• D. Contacting the registered nurse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying an ice pack to the perineum is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Ice causes vasoconstriction, providing relief by numbing the area and preventing edema. It is typically used within the first 12 to 24 hours after birth. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath is more suitable after 24 hours as warm water can be soothing. Administering an IV opioid analgesic is excessive; an anesthetic spray is more appropriate for surface discomfort. Contacting the registered nurse is unnecessary as applying an ice pack is within the nurse's scope and can effectively address the discomfort without escalation.

4. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?

• A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
• B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
• C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
• D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.

5. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

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