Nursing Elites

1. An LPN is reviewing medication lists for several clients recently admitted to the hospital. Which of the following scenarios would be least concerning?

• A. A client taking allopurinol for gout states they have been taking black cohosh to help with post-menopausal symptoms.
• B. A client has an order for warfarin and states they have been taking Ginkgo biloba to improve their memory.
• C. A client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost.
• D. A client has a prescription for an SSRI and states they have been taking St. John's wort to also help with their depression.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least concerning scenario is when a client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost. While ginseng may cause an increased risk of bleeding, it should not interact with Lipitor. On the other hand, St. John's wort should not be taken with an SSRI as it may cause serotonin syndrome, posing a more serious concern. Black cohosh should not be taken with allopurinol as they can both cause hepatotoxicity, especially in combination. Ginkgo biloba should not be taken with warfarin as it causes an increased risk of bleeding, making it a more concerning scenario compared to the client taking Lipitor and ginseng.

2. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' If an 11-12-month-old child is unable to pull to a standing position, it can indicate a risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By 15 months of age, children should be walking, so delayed standing can be a red flag. The Trendelenburg sign is associated with gluteus medius muscle weakness, not hip dysplasia, making choice C incorrect. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital hip subluxation or dislocation, not developmental dysplasia, making choice D incorrect.

3. During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?

• A. Documents the normal finding
• B. Checks for penile discharge, as this indicates infection
• C. Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, as wrinkling suggests the presence of one
• D. Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the scrotal abnormality

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.

4. When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap.
• B. Listen to the right lung first, then the left lung, moving from top to bottom systematically.
• C. Ask the client to take deep breaths through the mouth.
• D. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client's chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.

5. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

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