an lpn is reviewing medication lists for several clients recently admitted to the hospital which of the following scenarios would be least concerning
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NCLEX-PN

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1. An LPN is reviewing medication lists for several clients recently admitted to the hospital. Which of the following scenarios would be least concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least concerning scenario is when a client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost. While ginseng may cause an increased risk of bleeding, it should not interact with Lipitor. On the other hand, St. John's wort should not be taken with an SSRI as it may cause serotonin syndrome, posing a more serious concern. Black cohosh should not be taken with allopurinol as they can both cause hepatotoxicity, especially in combination. Ginkgo biloba should not be taken with warfarin as it causes an increased risk of bleeding, making it a more concerning scenario compared to the client taking Lipitor and ginseng.

2. When assisting with data collection on language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, what characteristic would a nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, a nurse would expect the child's language development to be slower than expected. Various factors, such as physical maturity and reinforcement received, can influence the pace of language development. Children from bilingual families, twins, and non-firstborn children may exhibit slower language development. Therefore, it is common for the language development of a toddler from a bilingual family to be slower than expected. This characteristic does not necessarily imply a need for speech therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because, in this context, the language development of the child is more likely to be slower than expected rather than more advanced, developing as expected, or requiring speech therapy.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

4. Which of these is not a symptom of Serotonin Syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Serotonin syndrome, caused by an excess of serotonin, typically presents with symptoms such as altered mental status (confusion), neuromuscular abnormalities (tremors), and autonomic dysfunction (fever). Edema, which refers to swelling caused by fluid retention in the body tissues, is not a common symptom associated with serotonin syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is 'edema.' Choice A, 'edema,' is the correct answer as it is not typically seen in serotonin syndrome. Choice B, 'fever,' is a symptom of serotonin syndrome, as it can cause autonomic dysfunction. Choice C, 'confusion,' is a common symptom due to altered mental status in serotonin syndrome. Choice D, 'tremors,' is also a common symptom due to neuromuscular abnormalities in serotonin syndrome.

5. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8-10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.

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