the nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy which assessment by
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NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment by the nurse suggests that the client is developing this complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremors, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. It is a flapping tremor of the hands when the wrists are extended, indicating neurological impairment. Hypertension and Kussmaul respirations are not directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Lethargy is a common symptom but not a specific sign that suggests the development of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.

3. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.

4. A client is going to have an endoscopy performed. Which of the following is not a probable reason for an endoscopy procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pain felt during a bowel movement.' Endoscopy is used to examine the upper gastrointestinal tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Pain during a bowel movement would suggest an issue in the lower gastrointestinal tract, which is typically examined with a colonoscopy. Choices A, C, and D are not probable reasons for an endoscopy procedure as they relate to symptoms in the upper gastrointestinal tract or are not specific to gastrointestinal issues. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet could indicate a risk of aspiration pneumonia related to swallowing difficulties, which can be assessed through an endoscopy. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant may be related to conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers that can be investigated using an endoscopy. Right shoulder pain can be a referred pain from conditions like gallbladder disease that can also be evaluated with an endoscopy.

5. When assessing a client in the Emergency Department whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse notes that the fluid is a greenish color. What is the cause of this greenish coloration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: meconium. Greenish amniotic fluid passed when the fetus is in a cephalic (head) presentation might indicate fetal distress. A fetus in the breech presentation passes meconium due to compression on the intestinal tract. Choice A, blood, is incorrect as blood in the amniotic fluid would present as a different color. Choice C, hydramnios, refers to an excess of amniotic fluid and would not cause the greenish coloration. Choice D, caput, is swelling of a newborn's scalp and is not related to the color of the amniotic fluid.

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