Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment by the nurse suggests that the client is developing this complication?

• A. Asterixis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Lethargy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremors, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. It is a flapping tremor of the hands when the wrists are extended, indicating neurological impairment. Hypertension and Kussmaul respirations are not directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Lethargy is a common symptom but not a specific sign that suggests the development of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A patient had a pneumonectomy to the right lung performed 48 hours ago. Which of the following conditions most likely exists?

• A. Decreased breath sound volume
• B. Elevated tidal volume
• C. Elevated respiratory capacity
• D. Wheezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, where a lung is surgically removed, there will be a decrease in breath sound volume on the affected side due to reduced airflow. This reduction in breath sound volume is expected as there is less lung tissue to produce sound. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated tidal volume and respiratory capacity are not expected after a pneumonectomy, and wheezing is more commonly associated with conditions like asthma or bronchitis, not a recent pneumonectomy.

3. The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
• B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
• C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
• D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.

4. The client is taking Antabuse and should avoid eating foods that may trigger a disulfiram reaction. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid:

• A. Peanuts, dates, raisins
• B. Figs, chocolate, eggplant
• C. Pickles, salad with vinaigrette dressing, beef
• D. Milk, cottage cheese, ice cream

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client taking Antabuse should avoid foods that contain alcohol or vinegar as they can trigger a disulfiram reaction. Pickles and vinaigrette dressing often contain vinegar, which the client should avoid. Beef is safe to consume. Choices A, B, and D do not contain alcohol or vinegar, so they are allowed for the client taking Antabuse.

5. The nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) sublingual (SL) within what time frame?

• A. 15 seconds
• B. 3 minutes
• C. 5 minutes
• D. 15 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The onset of action for Nitrostat SL is 1 to 3 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness within 3 minutes after administering the medication. Option A, 15 seconds, is too short of a time frame for the onset of action of Nitrostat. Option C, 5 minutes, is slightly delayed compared to the typical onset time. Option D, 15 minutes, is too long to wait for evaluating the effectiveness of Nitrostat sublingual administration.

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