NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment by the nurse suggests that the client is developing this complication?
- A. Asterixis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Kussmaul respirations
- D. Lethargy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremors, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. It is a flapping tremor of the hands when the wrists are extended, indicating neurological impairment. Hypertension and Kussmaul respirations are not directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Lethargy is a common symptom but not a specific sign that suggests the development of hepatic encephalopathy.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's right lower extremity. The extremity is warm to touch, red, and swollen. The patient is also running a low fever. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely cause of the patient's condition?
- A. Herpes
- B. Scleroderma
- C. Dermatitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation of a warm, red, swollen extremity with a low fever is indicative of cellulitis, which is inflammation of cellular tissue. Cellulitis is commonly associated with these symptoms due to a bacterial infection in the skin and underlying tissues. Herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection that typically presents with grouped vesicles, not the warm, red, swollen presentation seen in cellulitis. Scleroderma (Choice B) is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin and connective tissue, presenting differently from the acute symptoms of cellulitis. Dermatitis (Choice C) refers to skin inflammation, which does not typically present with the described symptoms of warmth, redness, swelling, and low fever observed in cellulitis.
3. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?
- A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
- B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
- C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
- D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.
4. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?
- A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
- B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
- C. Implement reverse isolation.
- D. Avoid IM injections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.
5. A client is admitted to telemetry with a diagnosis of diabetes at 3pm. At 10pm, the client is unresponsive. BP is 98/64, Resp 38, HR 100, T 97. The nurse notes a fruity smell on the client's breath. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which acid-base imbalance?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Based on the client's unresponsiveness, fruity breath smell, and the presence of diabetes, the nurse can infer that the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a complication of diabetes characterized by the accumulation of ketones in the body, leading to metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath smell is due to the presence of ketones. Therefore, the correct acid-base imbalance in this scenario is metabolic acidosis. Choice A, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the scenario does not provide evidence of primary respiratory dysfunction. Choice B, respiratory alkalosis, is incorrect as the client's condition does not align with the typical causes and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis. Choice D, metabolic alkalosis, is incorrect as the symptoms and history provided do not suggest a state of metabolic alkalosis.
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