NCLEX NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin’s disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP—nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?
- A. Cushingoid appearance
- B. Alopecia
- C. Temporary or permanent sterility
- D. Pathologic fractures
Correct answer: Alopecia
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.
2. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:
- A. inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
- B. ask about the types of foods the child is eating.
- C. request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.
- D. question the parent about objects the child plays with.
Correct answer: inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.
3. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client’s fluid intake?
- A. ice chips
- B. Jell-O™
- C. pudding
- D. IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback
Correct answer: pudding
Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O™, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O™ provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.
4. What is one of the main goals of Healthy People 2010?
- A. reduction of health care costs
- B. elimination of health disparities
- C. investigation of substance abuse
- D. determination of an acceptable morbidity rate
Correct answer: elimination of health disparities
Rationale: The main goal of Healthy People 2010 is the elimination of health disparities among the U.S. population. This initiative outlines specific objectives to improve the overall health of Americans by addressing disparities in health outcomes. Choice A, reduction of health care costs, is not the primary goal of Healthy People 2010, although it may be a beneficial outcome. Choice C, investigation of substance abuse, is not a main goal of Healthy People 2010; while substance abuse may be a factor in health disparities, the primary focus is on broader disparities. Choice D, determination of an acceptable morbidity rate, is not the main focus of Healthy People 2010; instead, it aims to address health disparities in different population groups.
5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?
- A. 1+ edema
- B. 2+ edema
- C. 3+ edema
- D. 4+ edema
Correct answer: 3+ edema
Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99