Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.

2. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
• B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
• C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102�F
• D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.

3. A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?

• A. An 8-year-old boy has been vomiting, appears to have slower movements, and has a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement.
• B. A 10-year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.
• C. A 7-year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days and has a history of an anterior knee wound.
• D. A 7-year-old girl who had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 8-year-old boy with vomiting, slower movements, and a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement. This report requires immediate attention because the symptoms could indicate a blocked shunt, which is a serious medical condition needing urgent evaluation and intervention. Slower movements in the context of an atrioventricular shunt history could suggest increased intracranial pressure. The other choices involve less urgent issues: choice B describes post-exercise pain, choice C presents with a low-grade fever and headache that could be due to a mild infection, and choice D reports itching associated with a cast, which is a common issue and less critical compared to a potentially blocked shunt.

4. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:

• A. prednisone (Colisone)
• B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• C. indomethacin (Indocin)
• D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is allopurinol (Zyloprim) as it is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid formation. Allopurinol is commonly used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease inflammation, not to lower uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, but it is not the drug of choice for lowering uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and edema, not to decrease uric acid levels.

5. The schizophrenic client tells you that they are "Jesus"? and "there to save the world"?. They are reading from the Bible and warning others of hell and damnation. The whole unit is getting upset and several are beginning to cry. What should the nurse do at this time?

• A. Set limits and send the client to their room.
• B. Explain to the client that not all people are Christians.
• C. Remove the Bible from the client and explain that they are not "Jesus"?.
• D. Ask the client to share with the group how he knows that he is "Jesus"?.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to set limits with the client and redirect them to their room. The client's behavior is disruptive and causing distress among others in the unit. Sending the client to their room allows them to cool down and prevents further agitation among other patients. Removing the client from the current environment can help de-escalate the situation. Asking the client to share how they know they are "Jesus"? (Choice D) may further agitate the situation and is not the immediate priority. Explaining to the client that not all people are Christians (Choice B) may not effectively address the disruptive behavior. Removing the Bible from the client (Choice C) without addressing the underlying issue may escalate the situation further.

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