Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted disease?

• A. alcohol use
• B. certain types of sexual practices
• C. oral contraception use
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above factors are likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Alcohol use can impair judgment, leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain types of sexual practices, especially unprotected sex or multiple partners, increase the likelihood of contracting STDs. While oral contraception use does not directly increase the risk of STDs, it does not protect against them either. Therefore, all the choices (alcohol use, certain types of sexual practices, and oral contraception use) can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

2. While assessing a patient who has undergone a recent CABG, the nurse notices a mole with irregular edges and a bluish color. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Recommend a dermatological consult to the physician.
• B. Note the location of the mole and contact the physician via telephone.
• C. Note the location of the mole and follow-up with the attending physician through the medical record and a phone call.
• D. Remove the mole with a sharp debridement technique, following approval from the charge nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should note the location of the mole and follow up with the attending physician through the medical record and a phone call. This action is appropriate because a mole with irregular edges and a bluish color raises concern for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Recommending a dermatological consult (Choice A) might delay the evaluation and management of the mole. Contacting the physician via telephone (Choice B) may not provide a documented record of the observation. Removing the mole without proper evaluation (Choice D) could be dangerous and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient in the step-down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
• C. Change in LOC
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased pupil size bilaterally.' When assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure, bilateral pupil dilation is not typically associated with this condition. Instead, unilateral pupil changes, especially one pupil becoming dilated or non-reactive while the other remains normal, are indicative of increased ICP. Bradycardia, a change in level of consciousness (LOC), and vomiting are commonly seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure due to the brain's response to the rising pressure. Therefore, the presence of bilateral pupil dilation goes against the typical pattern observed in patients with increased intracranial pressure.

4. What is the number one reason a person with alcohol addiction does not seek treatment?

• A. Co-dependency
• B. Denial
• C. Depression
• D. Stigma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. Individuals with alcohol addiction often deny that they have a drinking problem and may become defensive when confronted about it. This sense of denial can be a significant barrier to seeking treatment. Co-dependency, referred to in choice A, is a relationship dynamic and is not the primary reason for avoiding treatment. Depression, as mentioned in choice C, is a common co-occurring condition with alcohol addiction but is not typically the main factor preventing treatment-seeking. Stigma, as in choice D, can act as a deterrent, but denial of the problem itself is usually the primary obstacle to seeking help.

5. A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:

• A. increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
• B. increased adverse effects of Drug B.
• C. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
• D. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.

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