Nursing Elites

1. Nursing care for a client undergoing chemotherapy includes assessment for signs of bone marrow depression. Which finding accounts for some of the symptoms related to bone marrow depression?

• A. erythrocytosis
• B. leukocytosis
• C. polycythemia
• D. thrombocytopenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets, which results in bleeding tendencies. During chemotherapy, bone marrow depression can lead to a reduction in platelet production, causing thrombocytopenia. Erythrocytosis is an abnormal increase in red blood cells, leukocytosis is an increase in white blood cells, and polycythemia is an excess of red blood cells, which is synonymous with erythrocytosis. In the context of chemotherapy, the focus is on the decrease in red and white blood cells, making thrombocytopenia the most relevant finding.

2. A 93-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer's Disease gets admitted to an Alzheimer's unit. The patient has exhibited signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait. Moreover, the patient is refusing to use a w/c. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?

• A. Recommend the patient remain in her room at all times.
• B. Recommend family members bring pictures to the patient's room.
• C. Recommend a speech therapy consult to the doctor.
• D. Recommend the patient attempt to walk pushing the w/c for safety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 93-year-old female with Alzheimer's Disease exhibiting signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait, recommending family members to bring pictures to the patient's room is the most appropriate course of action. Visual stimulation in the form of pictures may help decrease signs of confusion and provide comfort to the patient. Option A is incorrect as isolating the patient in her room at all times may worsen her condition by further limiting stimulation and interaction. Option C is incorrect as speech therapy may not directly address the current issues of confusion and gait instability. Option D is incorrect as pushing a wheelchair may not be safe for the patient if she is refusing to use it, potentially leading to falls or further distress.

3. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

• A. Frontal headache
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
• D. Cool clammy skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

4. Which system is primarily affected by tuberculosis (Mycobacterium)?

• A. stomach (GI)
• B. heart (cardiac)
• C. lungs (respiratory)
• D. skin (integumentary)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tuberculosis, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, primarily affects the respiratory system. This aerobic bacillus thrives in highly oxygenated body sites, such as the lungs, growing ends of bones, and the brain. The bacillus is airborne, making the lungs a common site for infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as tuberculosis predominantly impacts the respiratory system and rarely involves the stomach, heart, or skin.

5. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

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