Nursing Elites

1. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?

• A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
• C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
• D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.

2. The nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy. The client reports nausea and complains of surgical site pain at a 6 on a 0 to 10 scale. The client's employer is present in the room and states he is paying for the insurance and wants to know what pain medication has been prescribed by the physician. Which of the following is the appropriate nurse response?

• A. Answer any questions the employer may have as he pays for the insurance.
• B. Tell the employer his question is inappropriate and that the information is none of his business.
• C. Explain to the employer that you cannot release private information and ask the employer to step out while you conduct your assessment of the client.
• D. Ask the employer to leave and wait until the client returns home to visit.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate nurse response is to explain to the employer that private information cannot be released and ask the employer to step out while conducting the assessment. This approach respects the client's privacy while still acknowledging the employer. The employer's payment for insurance does not grant rights to confidential information. Sharing information without permission violates the client's right to privacy under HIPAA. Option A is incorrect as it compromises the client's confidentiality by sharing private medical information. Option B is inappropriate and unprofessional as it does not address the situation respectfully. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's immediate needs and assumes the client's consent without proper communication.

3. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:

• A. complains of sharp pain upon taking a deep breath and excessive coughing.
• B. exhibits yellow, productive sputum, low-grade fever, and crackles.
• C. has a shift of the trachea to the left, with no breath sounds on the right.
• D. has asthma and complains of an inability to catch her breath after exercise.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.

4. A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Mantoux test
• C. Breath sounds examination
• D. Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.

5. The healthcare provider should utilize data about which of the following to provide information about the nutritional status of a client being evaluated for malnutrition?

• A. triceps skinfold measurement
• B. fasting blood glucose level
• C. hemoglobin A1c level
• D. serum lipid profile results

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Objective anthropometric measurements such as triceps skinfold and mid-arm circumference (MAC), along with weight, are usually used to diagnose malnutrition. Triceps skinfold measurement specifically helps assess body fat and muscle mass, providing valuable information about the client's nutritional status. Fasting blood glucose level, hemoglobin A1c level, and serum lipid profile results are important tests in assessing different aspects of health such as diabetes management and cardiovascular risk, but they are not specific indicators of malnutrition.

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