Nursing Elites

1. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

• A. tuberculosis (TB)
• B. pneumonia
• C. pleural effusion
• D. hypoxia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SaO2 indicate hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low due to hypoxia stimulating hyperventilation, but the given ABG values specifically point to hypoxia as the primary issue.

2. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

3. A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?

• A. An 8-year-old boy has been vomiting, appears to have slower movements, and has a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement.
• B. A 10-year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.
• C. A 7-year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days and has a history of an anterior knee wound.
• D. A 7-year-old girl who had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 8-year-old boy with vomiting, slower movements, and a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement. This report requires immediate attention because the symptoms could indicate a blocked shunt, which is a serious medical condition needing urgent evaluation and intervention. Slower movements in the context of an atrioventricular shunt history could suggest increased intracranial pressure. The other choices involve less urgent issues: choice B describes post-exercise pain, choice C presents with a low-grade fever and headache that could be due to a mild infection, and choice D reports itching associated with a cast, which is a common issue and less critical compared to a potentially blocked shunt.

4. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?

• A. quickening
• B. ophthalmia neonatorum
• C. pica
• D. prolapsed umbilical cord

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

5. Which of the following food selections would need to be removed from a tray for a client recovering from thyroidectomy?

• A. Fresh apple
• B. V8 juice
• C. Mustard greens
• D. Ice cream

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a fresh apple. After a thyroidectomy, it is important to avoid hard and crunchy foods like apples due to the proximity of the esophagus to the surgical site. Apples can be difficult to chew and swallow, posing a risk of injury or discomfort to the patient. V8 juice, mustard greens, and ice cream are softer options that would be more suitable for a client recovering from thyroidectomy.

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