Nursing Elites

1. When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?

• A. low back pain
• B. urinary frequency
• C. GI distress
• D. malaise

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy. It is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are usually no problems. Frequency may return in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. UTI symptoms include low back pain, suprapubic discomfort, and malaise, and are confirmed by laboratory findings. Low back pain, GI distress, and malaise are more closely associated with UTI during pregnancy compared to urinary frequency.

2. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
• B. Hold medications and notify the physician
• C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
• D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

3. Which task would be appropriate for the LPN to perform?

• A. Changing a colostomy bag.
• B. Hanging a new bag of TPN.
• C. Drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line.
• D. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changing a colostomy bag. This task falls within the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care, including assisting with activities of daily living and certain medical procedures like changing ostomy bags. Hanging a new bag of TPN and drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line are tasks that require a higher level of training and are typically performed by RNs due to their complexity and potential risks. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client is usually the responsibility of an RN as it involves close monitoring, assessment of the client's condition, and the administration of potent medications that require a higher level of clinical judgment and expertise.

4. The nurse teaching about preventable diseases should emphasize the importance of getting the following vaccines:

• A. human papillomavirus, genital herpes, measles.
• B. pneumonia, HIV, mumps.
• C. syphilis, gonorrhea, pneumonia.
• D. polio, pertussis, measles.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vaccines are one of the most effective methods of preventing and controlling certain communicable diseases. The smallpox vaccine is not currently in use because the smallpox virus has been declared eradicated from the world's population. Diseases such as polio, diphtheria, pertussis, and measles are mostly controlled by routine childhood immunization. They have not, however, been eradicated, so children need to be immunized against these diseases. Choices A, B, and C contain vaccines that do not protect against preventable diseases like polio, pertussis, and measles. Therefore, the correct choice is D.

5. A patient has been ordered to receive Klonopin for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Klonopin?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Ataxia
• C. Salivation elevation
• D. Diplopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diplopia.' While drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation are common side effects associated with Klonopin, diplopia is not typically linked to this medication. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a common side effect reported with the use of Klonopin. It is important to monitor patients for the known side effects such as drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation when administering Klonopin. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they are known side effects of Klonopin, unlike diplopia which is not commonly observed with this medication.

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