NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with Class III/IV Pulmonary Hypertension. The nurse explains to the client that Lanoxin is being administered to the client in order to:
- A. Manage peripheral edema
- B. Improve right ventricular function
- C. Increase pulmonary pressure
- D. Constrict the pulmonary vessels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to improve right ventricular function. Lanoxin, also known as digoxin, is a cardiac glycoside that works by slowing the heart rate and increasing myocardial contractility, especially in the ventricles. This action helps improve the efficiency of the heart's pumping function, particularly the right ventricle in conditions like pulmonary hypertension. Choice A, managing peripheral edema, is not directly related to Lanoxin's mechanism of action. Choice C, increasing pulmonary pressure, is incorrect as Lanoxin is not used to increase pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Choice D, constricting the pulmonary vessels, is incorrect as Lanoxin does not cause vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vessels but rather acts on the heart's contractility.
2. Which statement best describes electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluid?
- A. There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid
- B. There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium in extracellular fluid
- C. There is a greater concentration of potassium in extracellular fluid and sodium in intracellular fluid
- D. There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Electrolytes are distributed unequally between intracellular and extracellular fluids. Sodium concentration is higher in extracellular fluid, while potassium concentration is higher in intracellular fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is 'There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid.' Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the typical distribution of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid.
3. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:
- A. the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.
- B. red blood cells are affected first.
- C. folic acid levels are normal.
- D. the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.
4. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
- A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
- B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
- C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
- D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.
5. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for a client with insomnia?
- A. Ineffective breathing pattern
- B. Disturbed sensory perception
- C. Ineffective coping
- D. Sleep deprivation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Ineffective breathing pattern.' When a client presents with insomnia, assessing for underlying causes is crucial. Sleep apnea, an airway issue, may be a contributing factor to the client's insomnia, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the priority. 'Disturbed sensory perception' focuses on alterations in touch, taste, or vision, which are not directly related to insomnia. 'Ineffective coping' addresses a client's inability to manage stress, which, although important, is not the priority in this case. 'Sleep deprivation' is a consequence of insomnia rather than a primary nursing diagnosis.
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