Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with Class III/IV Pulmonary Hypertension. The nurse explains to the client that Lanoxin is being administered to the client in order to:

• A. Manage peripheral edema
• B. Improve right ventricular function
• C. Increase pulmonary pressure
• D. Constrict the pulmonary vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to improve right ventricular function. Lanoxin, also known as digoxin, is a cardiac glycoside that works by slowing the heart rate and increasing myocardial contractility, especially in the ventricles. This action helps improve the efficiency of the heart's pumping function, particularly the right ventricle in conditions like pulmonary hypertension. Choice A, managing peripheral edema, is not directly related to Lanoxin's mechanism of action. Choice C, increasing pulmonary pressure, is incorrect as Lanoxin is not used to increase pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Choice D, constricting the pulmonary vessels, is incorrect as Lanoxin does not cause vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vessels but rather acts on the heart's contractility.

2. A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Weakness and SOB
• B. Fever and anemia
• C. Hypertension and SOB
• D. Fever and hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.

3. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's arterial blood gas values. Which of the following conditions apply under the following values? pH- 7.49 Bicarbonate ion 24 mEq/dl PaCO2 - 31 mmHg PaO2 - 52 mmHg FiO2 - 0.22

• A. respiratory acidosis
• B. respiratory alkalosis
• C. metabolic acidosis
• D. metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The given blood gas values indicate respiratory alkalosis. A high pH and low PaCO2 level are consistent with respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, no compensation for the alkalosis is noted, ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. Metabolic conditions would usually involve changes in bicarbonate levels, which remain within the normal range in this case.

5. Which of the following observations is most important when assessing a client's breathing?

• A. presence of breathing and pulse rate
• B. breathing pattern and adequacy of breathing
• C. presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing
• D. patient position and adequacy of breathing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing. It is crucial to ensure that the client is not only breathing but also breathing adequately. Choices A and D are incorrect as pulse rate and patient position are not the most critical observations when assessing a client's breathing. Pulse rate is more related to assessing circulation, and patient position is important but not as crucial as ensuring the client is breathing and breathing adequately. Choice B is partially correct as breathing pattern is important, but the most critical observation is the adequacy of breathing. Adequacy of breathing ensures that the client is receiving enough oxygen to support proper body function and is the key focus during breathing assessment.

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