NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. While Fluorouracil (5FUĀ®) is being infused, a client complains of burning at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Aspirate the IV site for blood return.
- B. Slow the infusion.
- C. Inspect the IV site.
- D. Stop the infusion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to inspect the IV site. This is important to assess for any signs of infiltration or extravasation, which could be causing the burning sensation. Aspirating the IV site for blood return (Choice A) may not be the initial priority as it does not directly address the client's complaint of burning. Slowing the infusion (Choice B) may help alleviate discomfort but should not be done before inspecting the site. Stopping the infusion (Choice D) may be necessary, but inspecting the site should come first to determine the appropriate course of action.
2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?
- A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
- B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
- C. Insert NG tube to low suction
- D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.
3. A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?
- A. Administer O2.
- B. Turn the client on her left side.
- C. Notify the physician.
- D. No action is necessary
Correct answer: D
Rationale: This scenario describes early deceleration due to head compression, which is a benign finding in labor. Early decelerations mirror the contractions and do not require any intervention as they are considered a normal response to fetal head compression. The fetal heart rate returns to baseline at the end of the contraction. In this case, the correct action is no action at the moment. Close monitoring of the mother and baby is essential, but immediate intervention is not required. Administering O2 (Choice A) or turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not indicated for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is unnecessary for this type of deceleration.
4. A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the ER with lower right abdominal discomfort. What should the admitting nurse do first?
- A. Administer Loritab to the patient for pain relief.
- B. Place the patient in a right sidelying position for pressure relief.
- C. Start a Central Line.
- D. Provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a case of lower right abdominal discomfort, the first step should be to provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication. Administering pain medication or starting a central line should not be done without medical orders. Placing the patient in a right sidelying position may help with pressure relief, but addressing pain reduction techniques without medication is the initial priority in this scenario. It is essential to assess the patient further, consult with a healthcare provider, and follow the appropriate protocols before administering any medication or invasive procedures like starting a central line.
5. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?
- A. tuberculosis (TB)
- B. pneumonia
- C. pleural effusion
- D. hypoxia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SaO2 indicate hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low due to hypoxia stimulating hyperventilation, but the given ABG values specifically point to hypoxia as the primary issue.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access