Nursing Elites

1. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

2. Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?

• A. open leg fracture
• B. open head injury
• C. stab wound to the chest
• D. traumatic amputation of a thumb

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A stab wound to the chest might result in lung collapse and mediastinal shift that, if untreated, could lead to death. Treatment of an obstructed airway or a chest wound is a higher priority than hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) prioritizes care decisions. In this scenario, the stab wound to the chest poses the highest risk to the client's life as it can lead to severe complications such as lung collapse and mediastinal shift. Addressing this injury promptly is crucial to prevent further harm or potential fatality. Open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to a stab wound to the chest.

3. A client with sickle cell disease is worried about passing the disease on to children. Which of the following statements by the PN is most appropriate for this client?

• A. "You should discuss the inheritance risk with your physician."?
• B. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children."?
• C. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and is not passed on to children."?
• D. "Sickle cell disease is caused by an infection and cannot be passed on to children."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with sickle cell disease has a genetic condition that can be passed on to their offspring. The most appropriate statement for the PN to provide is to acknowledge this fact and inform the client that sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children. This empowers the client with accurate information. Choice A has been refined to emphasize discussing the inheritance risk, making it a better option than the vague original choice. Choices C and D provide incorrect information. Sickle cell disease is indeed genetically based and can be inherited.

4. A 46-year-old has returned from a heart catheterization and wants to get up to start walking 3 hours after the procedure. The nurse should:

• A. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour and check the chart for activity orders.
• B. Allow the patient to begin limited ambulation with assistance.
• C. Recommend a physical therapy consultation for ambulation.
• D. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for another 6 hours and check the chart for activity orders.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour after a heart catheterization before starting ambulation. This period allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications such as bleeding or hematoma formation at the catheter insertion site. Starting ambulation too soon can disrupt the healing process and lead to adverse events. Choice B is incorrect because limited ambulation should not be initiated shortly after the procedure as it may increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as physical therapy consultation is not typically necessary for initial ambulation post-heart catheterization; this can be managed by nursing staff. Choice D is incorrect as keeping the leg straight for 6 hours is excessive and unnecessary, potentially leading to complications such as deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged immobility.

5. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?

• A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
• B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
• C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
• D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.

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