NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?
- A. Muscle tetany
- B. Syncope
- C. Numbness
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.
2. While making rounds at 3 am, the nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Remove the client from the room immediately.
- B. Leave the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher.
- C. Instruct a nurse tech to pull the fire alarm.
- D. Evacuate all clients from the unit.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a fire emergency, the priority is the safety of the individual in the room where the fire is located. Removing the client from the room immediately is the first step in the RACE acronym for fire safety: Rescue/Remove, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. This action ensures the client's safety before addressing the fire itself. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher can delay the immediate removal of the client from the danger. Choice C is incorrect as pulling the fire alarm should be done after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D is incorrect as evacuating all clients from the unit should come after ensuring the safety of the individual in immediate danger.
3. What advice should be given to a client with stress incontinence?
- A. to consider trying Kegel exercises
- B. to undergo surgery immediately
- C. to avoid all forms of treatment
- D. to ignore the issue as it is not serious
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For stress incontinence, advising the client to consider trying Kegel exercises is appropriate. Kegel exercises involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice B suggesting immediate surgery is incorrect as surgery is usually considered after conservative treatments like Kegel exercises have been tried. Choice C advising to avoid all forms of treatment is dangerous and neglectful. Choice D recommending to ignore the issue is inappropriate as it can impact the client's quality of life and may worsen over time without intervention.
4. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for the client experiencing acute pancreatitis?
- A. Confusion
- B. Latex Allergy
- C. Acute Pain
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acute Pain is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing acute pancreatitis because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Pancreatitis often presents with severe abdominal pain that may radiate to the back. Confusion, Latex Allergy, and Constipation are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Confusion may occur in severe cases of pancreatitis with complications, but acute pain is the priority nursing diagnosis due to its prevalence and impact on the client's well-being.
5. The PN is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse can expect the lab work to show:
- A. elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
- B. decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
- C. elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
- D. decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the pituitary releases too much antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the client to produce a large amount of dilute urine (decreased osmolarity) and leading to dehydration (elevated serum osmolarity). Therefore, the correct answer is decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity. Choice C, elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, is incorrect for diabetes insipidus, as it is more characteristic of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). Choices A and B, elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity, and decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, respectively, are generally not seen in diabetes insipidus, as urine and serum osmolarity typically move in opposite directions in this condition.
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