Nursing Elites

1. An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?

• A. It protects the bacteria from antibiotic and immunologic destruction.
• B. Glycocalyx neutralizes the antibiotic, rendering it ineffective.
• C. It competes with the antibiotic for binding sites on the microbe.
• D. Glycocalyx provides nutrients for microbial growth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bacterial glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It plays a significant role in protecting bacteria by enhancing adherence to surfaces, resisting phagocytic engulfment by white blood cells, and preventing antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Choice A is correct because glycocalyx shields the bacteria from both antibiotics and the immune system, allowing the infection to persist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because glycocalyx does not neutralize antibiotics, compete for binding sites with antibiotics, or provide nutrients for microbial growth.

2. What could be a possible cause for the symptoms experienced by the client in Question 28?

• A. iron deficiency
• B. folate deficiency
• C. peptic ulcer
• D. iron overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Given the client's symptoms of fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness, along with her gender and fad dieting, the most likely cause is iron deficiency. Iron deficiency commonly presents with these symptoms due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. Folate deficiency would typically present with different symptoms such as mouth sores and changes in skin, not fitting the client's presentation. Peptic ulcer would manifest with abdominal pain, not primarily with the symptoms described. Iron overload would present with symptoms such as joint pain and fatigue, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

3. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?

• A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
• B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
• C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
• D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.

4. The nurse manager is having a problem on the unit with one staff person having repetitive tardiness and leaving the unit with orders not initiated. Which action by the manager would be best?

• A. Call the staff nurse in and place them on a work improvement plan after a 3-day suspension
• B. Have the other staff gather additional information on the tardy staff member
• C. Call the staff nurse in for an interview to investigate the problem and possible solutions
• D. Assign a mentor to assist the staff member in arriving on time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager would be to call the staff nurse in for an interview to discuss the issues of repetitive tardiness and incomplete tasks. This approach allows the staff member to explain the situation, and together with the manager, develop a plan to address the problems. Choice A is incorrect as it immediately involves suspension without investigation or support. Choice B is not the best course of action as it does not involve direct communication with the staff member in question. Choice D, assigning a mentor to help the staff member, could be beneficial but does not directly address the immediate issues of tardiness and incomplete tasks.

5. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• C. Implement reverse isolation.
• D. Avoid IM injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.

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