Nursing Elites

1. The LPN needs to determine the client's respiratory rate. What is the best technique to do this?

• A. Tell the client you need to count their respiratory rate.
• B. Subtly watch the client from across the room when they are doing an activity.
• C. Ask the client to sit still for 30 seconds.
• D. Count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best technique to determine a client's respiratory rate is to count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse. You should not inform the client that you are counting their respirations, as this might lead to a change in their breathing pattern. Pretending to check the pulse allows you to be close to the client without revealing that you are assessing their respiratory rate. Asking the client to sit still may not be as effective, as it may cause them to concentrate on their breathing. Watching from across the room may not provide an accurate assessment of respirations, as they might be difficult to observe.

2. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:

• A. A reassuring sign
• B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
• C. An indication of fetal distress
• D. A nonreassuring sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.

3. A clinic nurse about to meet a new client plans to gather subjective data regarding the client's health history. Which action does the nurse take to help ensure the success of the interview?

• A. Ensuring that the room is private
• B. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them
• C. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet between the nurse and client
• D. Adjusting the room lighting to ensure it is comfortable and conducive for the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The physical environment of an interview room should provide optimal conditions to encourage a smooth interview and make the client feel comfortable. The nurse ensures that privacy is maintained to avoid interruptions during the interview. This helps create a safe space for the client to share sensitive information. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them is also important to promote open communication and build rapport. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet from the client respects their personal space and helps prevent the client from feeling overwhelmed. While adjusting the room lighting is beneficial for creating a comfortable atmosphere, ensuring privacy is crucial for establishing trust and confidentiality. Therefore, ensuring that the room is private is crucial for the success of the interview, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the importance of privacy in creating a conducive environment for the interview.

4. A nurse in a day-care setting is planning play activities for 2- and 3-year-old children. Which toys are most appropriate for these activities?

• A. Finger paints and card games
• B. Blocks and push-pull toys
• C. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys
• D. Simple board games and puzzles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate toys for 2- and 3-year-old children in a day-care setting are blocks and push-pull toys. Toddlers enjoy objects of different textures like clay, sand, finger paints, and bubbles, as well as push-pull toys, large balls, and sand and water play. They also like activities such as blocks, painting, coloring with large crayons, large puzzles, and playing with trucks or dolls. Finger paints and card games may be more suitable for older children. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys are generally more appropriate for preschoolers. Blocks and push-pull toys are beneficial for young children as they help in developing fine motor skills, hand-eye coordination, spatial awareness, and creativity. These toys also encourage imaginative play and problem-solving, making them ideal choices for toddlers.

5. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

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