NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The client is being discharged with a prescription for an inhaled glucocorticoid for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates additional education is needed prior to discharge?
- A. “I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after each puff.”
- B. “I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.”
- C. “I will wait at least one minute between each puff.”
- D. “I will take this medication daily even if I am not having symptoms.”
Correct answer: “I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.”
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.' After using an inhaled glucocorticoid, it is essential to wait for 5 minutes and then gargle water to remove any residue from the mouth, which can reduce the risk of developing thrush, a fungal infection. Choice A is correct as holding the breath for 10 seconds after each puff helps the medication reach deep into the lungs. Choice C is also correct as waiting at least one minute between puffs ensures proper delivery of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because it is important to take the medication daily as prescribed to control asthma symptoms, even if the person is not experiencing any at that moment.
2. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:
- A. Indomethacin
- B. Codeine
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Compazine
Correct answer: Compazine
Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.
3. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct answer: Morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body’s natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
4. Post thyroidectomy the nurse assesses for complications by performing which of the following assessments?
- A. Accu-Chek
- B. Chvostek's
- C. Ballottement
- D. Ice water colonic
Correct answer: Chvostek's
Rationale: The correct answer is Chvostek's. A positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's sign is indicative of tetany, which is associated with low calcium levels. This can occur if parathyroid glands are accidentally removed during thyroidectomy. Accu-Chek is a brand of blood glucose monitor used for checking blood sugar levels and is not relevant in this context. Ballottement is a technique used in physical examination to assess for fluid in the body, typically in the abdomen or joints. Ice water colonic is not a standard medical assessment and is not relevant to post-thyroidectomy complications.
5. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?
- A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
- B. posterior cord syndrome
- C. central cord syndrome
- D. cauda equina syndrome
Correct answer: Brown-Séquard syndrome
Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.
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