Nursing Elites

1. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

2. A 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV comes to a clinic for immunizations. Which of the following vaccines should the nurse expect to administer in addition to the scheduled vaccines?

• A. pneumococcal vaccine
• B. hepatitis A vaccine
• C. Lyme disease vaccine
• D. typhoid vaccine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV, in addition to the scheduled vaccines, the nurse should expect to administer the pneumococcal vaccine. Children with HIV are at an increased risk of infections, including pneumococcal disease. The pneumococcal vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal infections like pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia. The hepatitis A vaccine is not specifically recommended for all children with HIV unless there are specific risk factors. The Lyme disease vaccine is for individuals at risk for Lyme disease, typically between the ages of 15 and 70, transmitted by ticks. The typhoid vaccine is usually recommended for individuals traveling to endemic areas or working in specific high-risk occupations like microbiology laboratories dealing with Salmonella typhi.

3. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?

• A. Near vision
• B. Central vision
• C. Peripheral vision
• D. Ocular movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.

4. A nurse is determining the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client using Nagele's rule and notes documentation that the date of the client's last menstrual period was August 30, 2013. The nurse determines the estimated date of delivery to be which date?

• A. 30-May-14
• B. 6-Jun-14
• C. 6-Jul-14
• D. 6-May-14

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nagele's rule is a method used to estimate the date of delivery for pregnant clients. The rule involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period, then adjusting the year. Subtracting 3 months from August 30, 2013, brings the date to May 30, 2013; adding 7 days results in June 6, 2013. Finally, after correcting the year, the estimated date of delivery is June 6, 2014. Therefore, the correct answer is June 6, 2014. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the accurate calculation based on Nagele's rule.

5. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

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