Nursing Elites

1. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

2. What is the primary focus of a case manager?

• A. Addressing nursing care needs at discharge.
• B. Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.
• C. Providing client education needs upon discharge.
• D. Securing financial resources for needed care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.' Case managers oversee all aspects of a client's care to ensure continuity throughout their healthcare journey. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses only on nursing care needs at discharge, which is just a part of the overall care needed. Choice C narrows down the focus to client education needs, excluding other essential care components. Choice D solely considers financial resources, neglecting the broader scope of care needs that a case manager is accountable for.

3. The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?

• A. vitamin B12 deficiency
• B. chronic hypoglycemia
• C. vitamin D deficiency
• D. increased tolerance to Metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.

4. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's calf circumference. The nurse performs this procedure by performing which action?

• A. Placing a tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg
• B. Measuring 2 inches above the knee and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
• C. Measuring 2 inches above the ankle and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
• D. Measuring 2 inches below the patella and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To measure a client's calf circumference accurately, a nurse should place a non-stretchable tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg. It is crucial to ensure that the tape measure is positioned at the same number of centimeters down from a specific landmark, such as the patella, on both legs for consistency. Placing the tape measure 2 inches above the knee (Option B), 2 inches above the ankle (Option C), or 2 inches below the patella (Option D) would not provide an accurate measurement of the calf circumference. Therefore, these options are incorrect choices.

5. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

• A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
• B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
• C. overlap of cranial bones.
• D. ossification of the sutures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the anterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the anterior fontanel should be closed. The posterior fontanel should actually close by the age of 2 months, making choice A incorrect. Overlap of cranial bones is not a typical finding in a normal 10-month-old baby's skull, so choice C is incorrect. Ossification of the sutures is an ongoing process in skull development and should not be a definitive indicator at this age, making choice D incorrect.

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