Nursing Elites

1. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

2. A nurse preparing to assist with data collection of the abdomen asks the client to void and then assists the client into a supine position. Which primary finding does the nurse expect to note on percussing all four quadrants of the abdominal cavity?

• A. Dullness
• B. Tympany
• C. Borborygmus
• D. Hyperresonance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse expects to primarily note tympany when percussing the abdomen. Tympany should predominate because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the client is in a supine position. Dullness is usually heard over a distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass. Borborygmus, which refers to hyperperistalsis, is typically heard on auscultation, not percussion. Hyperresonance is present with gaseous distention, not the typical finding when percussing all four quadrants of the abdomen.

3. The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. That it could indicate a sign of an infection and the infant's temperature should be checked every 2 hours
• B. That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing
• C. To bring the infant to the pediatrician's office to be checked
• D. To remove the crust, using a warm, wet face cloth and a mild soap

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site, which is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be reassured that this crust is to be expected. Yellow crusting or discharge is not indicative of an infection, and there is no need to notify the pediatrician. Checking the infant's temperature every 2 hours is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary alarm to the mother.

4. A nurse notes the presence of variable decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor strip and suspects cord compression. The nurse should immediately perform which action?

• A. Insert a gloved finger into the mother's vagina to feel for cord compression
• B. Position the mother so that her hips are elevated
• C. Notify the registered nurse
• D. Perform a vaginal examination on the mother

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When variable decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor strip suggest cord compression, the immediate action the nurse should take is to reposition the mother to alleviate the compression. Elevating the mother's hips or changing her position can help shift the fetal presenting part and relieve pressure on the cord. This action aims to improve or resolve the variable decelerations. Contacting the registered nurse may be necessary, but it is not the immediate action required in this situation. Performing a vaginal examination is contraindicated due to the potential risk of further compromising blood flow through the umbilical cord. Inserting a gloved finger into the mother's vagina to feel for the cord is also not recommended as it poses a similar risk of exacerbating the situation.

5. When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?

• A. Iris
• B. Cornea
• C. Optic disc
• D. Conjunctiva

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.

Similar Questions