NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old client. What is the most appropriate pain scale for the nurse to use during the assessment?
- A. McGill Pain Scale
- B. FLACC Pain Scale
- C. CRIES Pain Scale
- D. Wong-Baker Pain Scale
Correct answer: Wong-Baker Pain Scale
Rationale: The correct answer is the Wong-Baker Pain Scale. This scale is specifically designed for pediatric clients, including children as young as 3 years old, making it the most appropriate choice for a 4-year-old. It utilizes a simple visual scale with facial expressions that children can easily understand and use to express their pain levels. The FLACC and CRIES Pain Scales are also used for pediatric clients but are more focused on non-verbal cues and specific populations like infants or critically ill children. The McGill Pain Scale, on the other hand, is more complex and uses descriptive words, making it more suitable for adult clients who can better articulate their pain experiences.
2. Which of the following would likely not impede learning?
- A. a client who took Ambien® an hour ago
- B. a bipolar client currently in a manic phase
- C. a client who states they are not interested
- D. a client with dysphagia
Correct answer: a client who states they are not interested
Rationale: The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien® an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.
3. Which of the following is not a nursing responsibility when preparing the client for central line insertion?
- A. advancing the guidewire
- B. explaining the procedure to the client
- C. maintaining sterile technique
- D. ensuring necessary consents are signed
Correct answer: advancing the guidewire
Rationale: When preparing a client for central line insertion, nursing responsibilities include explaining the procedure to the client, ensuring necessary consents are signed according to the facility policy, and maintaining sterile technique when preparing the equipment and supplies. Advancing the guidewire is typically performed by the practitioner inserting the central line, not the nurse. It requires specialized training and expertise beyond the scope of nursing practice. Therefore, the correct answer is advancing the guidewire. Option A is the correct answer because it delineates an activity that is not within the usual scope of nursing practice during central line insertion preparation. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they reflect essential nursing responsibilities in this context.
4. Central venous access devices (CVADs) are frequently utilized to administer chemotherapy. What is an advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration?
- A. CVADs are more expensive than a peripheral IV.
- B. Weekly administration is possible.
- C. Chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins.
- D. The client or family can administer the drug at home.
Correct answer: Chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins.
Rationale: The correct advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration is that chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins. Many chemotherapeutic drugs are vesicants, which can cause tissue damage even in low concentrations. Using a CVAD to administer these agents into a large vein is optimal as it reduces the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect as CVADs are actually more expensive than a peripheral IV, making it a disadvantage. Choice B is incorrect because the frequency of administration depends on the specific drug being administered, not on the access device, so it does not represent a universal advantage. Choice D is incorrect because IV chemotherapeutic agents are typically not self-administered at home; they are usually given in a hospital, outpatient, or clinic setting, making it an invalid advantage of using CVADs.
5. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2–4 hours
Correct answer: give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8–10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3–5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.
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