Nursing Elites

1. An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?

• A. a therapeutic effect
• B. a side effect
• C. an adverse effect
• D. an incompatibility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of an older client with presbycusis. Which finding would the nurse expect to note in the client's record?

• A. Difficulty hearing whispered words in the voice test
• B. Improved hearing ability during conversational speech
• C. Unilateral conductive hearing loss
• D. Difficulty hearing low-pitched tones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Presbycusis, a sensorineural hearing loss, is the most common form of hearing loss in older adults. Typically, the loss is bilateral, resulting in difficulty hearing high-pitched tones. The condition is revealed when the client has difficulty hearing whispered words in the voice test and consonants during conversational speech. Choice A is correct because it reflects the expected finding in presbycusis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because presbycusis does not result in improved hearing ability during conversational speech, unilateral conductive hearing loss, or difficulty hearing low-pitched tones.

3. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which part of the fetus?

• A. Back of the fetus
• B. Carotid artery in the neck of the fetus
• C. Brachial area of one extremity of the fetus
• D. Chest of the fetus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible due to the fetal position within the maternal abdomen. Placing the fetoscope over the carotid artery or brachial area would not yield the fetal heart rate, and the chest area is not typically used for auscultating the FHR.

4. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part concentrate and two parts water.
• D. If a portion of one bottle is left for the next feeding, discard it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is crucial to be cautious when heating bottles in a microwave to prevent milk from becoming superheated. The defrost setting is recommended, and the formula's temperature should always be checked before feeding the baby. Choice B, which advises to discard partially used bottles of refrigerated formula after 24 hours, is also correct. This is important to prevent the introduction of pathogens by the baby into the formula. Choice C, recommending mixing one part formula concentrate with two parts water, is essential for ensuring the correct dilution. Choice D, suggesting to discard any remaining portion of a bottle for the next feeding, is incorrect. It is not necessary to discard the remaining portion if it has been refrigerated promptly and used within a safe time frame. Adding fresh formula to a partially used bottle is not recommended, as it can lead to the growth of pathogens that may be transferred to the new formula.

5. When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
• B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
• C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
• D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.

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