Nursing Elites

1. All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:

• A. high infant mortality rate
• B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
• C. consultation with folk healers
• D. low incidence of dental problems

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Factors correlated with poverty often include a high infant mortality rate, frequent use of Emergency Departments, and consultation with folk healers, as these indicate limited access to healthcare. Dental problems are prevalent in poverty due to a lack of preventive care and access to treatments. High infant mortality is a significant issue linked with poverty as it reflects poor healthcare access. Families in poverty might resort to Emergency Departments for healthcare due to financial barriers. Consulting folk healers is common in communities with limited access to formal healthcare. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in impoverished families due to the lack of preventive services and the presence of other health issues.

2. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

3. Client self-determination is the primary focus of:

• A. malpractice insurance.
• B. nursing's advocacy for clients.
• C. confidentiality.
• D. health care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Client self-determination is the primary focus of nursing's advocacy for clients. Nurses advocate for their clients' right to autonomy and self-determination, ensuring that the clients' preferences and choices are respected. Confidentiality, on the other hand, involves maintaining the privacy of the client and their information. Health care is a broad term encompassing various aspects of medical services. Malpractice insurance is a type of insurance that provides coverage for professionals in case of negligence or malpractice, not directly related to client self-determination.

4. When assisting the physician in performing transillumination of a client's scrotum, how should the nurse prepare for this procedure?

• A. Obtaining a flashlight and darkening the room
• B. Instructing the client to drink three glasses of water
• C. Instructing the client to take several deep breaths and bear down
• D. Telling the client that the procedure is very uncomfortable but that the discomfort will only last for a few moments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing for transillumination of the scrotum, the nurse should obtain a flashlight and darken the room. This is done to allow the strong flashlight to be shined from behind the scrotal contents. Normal scrotal contents do not appear on transillumination. Instructing the client to drink fluids or to take deep breaths and bear down is not part of the preparation for this procedure. Additionally, it is not necessary to inform the client that the procedure is uncomfortable as transillumination is a painless procedure.

5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

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