Nursing Elites

1. During a health assessment interview, the client tells the nurse that she has some vaginal drainage. The client is concerned that it may indicate a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'When was your last gynecological checkup?'
• B. 'Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?'
• C. Don't worry about the discharge. Some vaginal discharge is normal.'
• D. 'I need some more information about the discharge. What color is it?'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If the client reports having vaginal drainage and concerns about a possible STI, it is essential for the nurse to gather more information about the discharge. Asking about the color of the discharge helps in determining its characteristics, which can be crucial in identifying potential causes. The color, consistency, odor, and associated symptoms can provide valuable insights into the underlying issue. Statements A and B are relevant questions but not as immediate or specific to addressing the client's concern about the discharge. Statement C dismisses the client's worries and does not encourage further assessment, which is not appropriate in this context.

2. A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?

• A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
• B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
• C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
• D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.

3. A 4-year-old client is unable to go to sleep at night in the hospital. Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep for the child?

• A. turning out the room light and closing the door
• B. tiring the child during the evening with quiet activities
• C. identifying the child's home bedtime rituals and following them
• D. encouraging visitation by friends during the evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 4-year-old client struggling to sleep in the hospital, it is essential to identify and replicate their home bedtime rituals. This familiarity can provide comfort and promote better sleep. Turning out the room light and closing the door (Choice A) might increase the child's fear by plunging the room into darkness, making it an incorrect choice. Tiring the child with quiet activities (Choice B) is incorrect as it may stimulate rather than calm the child. Encouraging visitation by friends (Choice D) can lead to increased excitement, hindering the child's ability to fall asleep instead of promoting a restful environment.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

5. The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?

• A. Tylenol
• B. Tramadol
• C. Codeine
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.

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